Home / Papers / UPSC Prelims GS 2025

1. 1.
   Science and Technology

   Consider the following types of vehicles:

   I. Full battery electric vehicles

   II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles

   III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles

   How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

   1. AOnly one
   2. BOnly two
   3. CAll the three
   4. DNone

   Show answer

   Answer: (C) All the three

   A powertrain is the complete system in a vehicle that generates power and delivers it to the wheels — it includes the engine, transmission, and drivetrain.

   An 'alternative powertrain' simply means any powertrain that is NOT the traditional Internal Combustion Engine (ICE).

   Now let's check each option:

   (I) Full battery electric vehicles (BEVs) — These run entirely on electricity stored in batteries. There is no ICE at all. So this is clearly an alternative powertrain. ✓

   (II) Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles (FCEVs) — These use hydrogen fuel cells to generate electricity, which then powers electric motors. Again, no ICE involved. This is an alternative powertrain. ✓

   (III) Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles — These combine a fuel cell with a battery or other electric storage system. They still don't use a conventional ICE. So this too is an alternative powertrain. ✓

   Since all three use non-ICE propulsion systems, all three are alternative powertrain vehicles. The answer is (c).

   Key learnings →Energy & Materials
2. 2.
   Science and Technology

   With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

   I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.

   II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.

   III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

   How many of the statements given above are correct?

   1. AOnly one
   2. BOnly two
   3. CAll the three
   4. DNone

   Show answer

   Answer: (D) None

   The key word in all three statements is 'ALL types of UAVs' — this is an absolute claim, and if even one type of UAV fails the condition, the statement becomes false.

   (I) 'All types of UAVs can do vertical landing' — FALSE.

   Fixed-wing drones (like military Predator drones) have rigid wings, a fuselage, and a propeller, just like aeroplanes.

   They need a runway or a net for landing and cannot land vertically.

   Only multirotors (like quadcopters) and VTOL drones can do vertical landing.

   (II) 'All types of UAVs can do automated hovering' — FALSE.

   Again, fixed-wing drones cannot hover in one place.

   They must keep moving forward to maintain lift, just like an aeroplane.

   Only multirotors can hover.

   (III) 'All types of UAVs can use battery only as power' — FALSE.

   Many long-endurance and military UAVs (like the MQ-9 Reaper/Predator) use liquid fuel (gasoline, jet fuel) because batteries have lower energy density and cannot provide the range or endurance needed for long missions.

   Since none of the three statements is universally true, the answer is (d) None.

   Key learnings →Defence
3. 3.
   Science and Technology

   In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

   I. Cobalt

   II. Graphite

   III. Lithium

   IV. Nickel

   How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

   1. AOnly one
   2. BOnly two
   3. COnly three
   4. DAll the four

   Show answer

   Answer: (C) Only three

   To answer this, you need to know the basic structure of a lithium-ion battery.

   It has three main parts:

   • a cathode (positive electrode)
   • an anode (negative electrode)
   • and an electrolyte.

   (I) Cobalt — Used in CATHODES.

   It appears in popular cathode chemistries like LiCoO₂ (Lithium Cobalt Oxide), NMC (Nickel Manganese Cobalt), and NCA (Nickel Cobalt Aluminum).

   Cobalt improves energy density and battery life. ✓ Cathode material.

   (II) Graphite — Used in ANODES, not cathodes.

   Graphite is the most common anode material in lithium-ion batteries.

   During charging, lithium ions move from the cathode and get stored between graphite layers in the anode. ✗ This is anode material.

   (III) Lithium — Used in CATHODES.

   It forms the base compound of virtually all cathode materials — LiCoO₂, LiFePO₄, LiNiMnCoO₂, etc.

   Lithium is also present in the electrolyte. ✓ Cathode material.

   (IV) Nickel — Used in CATHODES.

   It appears in NMC (Nickel Manganese Cobalt) and NCA (Nickel Cobalt Aluminum) cathodes.

   Nickel enhances energy density and storage capacity. ✓ Cathode material.

   So Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel are cathode materials, while Graphite is an anode material.

   Only three of the four make up cathodes.

   Answer is (c).

   Key learnings →Energy & Materials
4. 4.
   Environment

   Consider the following:

   I. Cigarette butts

   II. Eyeglass lenses

   III. Car tyres

   How many of them contain plastic?

   1. AOnly one
   2. BOnly two
   3. CAll the three
   4. DNone

   Show answer

   Answer: (C) All the three

   This question tests whether you know that plastic is present in many everyday items that people don't typically associate with plastic.

   (I) Cigarette butts — YES, they contain plastic.

   The filter in a cigarette is made of cellulose acetate, which is a type of plastic.

   These filters are one of the most common forms of plastic litter found in the environment, and they take years to decompose. ✓

   (II) Eyeglass lenses — YES, they contain plastic.

   Most modern eyeglass lenses are made from polymer-based materials like polycarbonate or CR-39 (a type of plastic resin).

   Even 'glass' lenses in frames today are usually plastic polymers. ✓

   (III) Car tyres — YES, they contain plastic.

   Tyres are made from a mix of natural and synthetic rubber (synthetic rubber is a type of polymer/plastic).

   When tyres wear down on roads, they release tiny particles called microplastics, which are now recognized as a major source of microplastic pollution in oceans and waterways. ✓

   All three items contain plastic in some form.

   Answer is (c).

   Key learnings →Pollution
5. 5.
   Environment

   Consider the following substances:

   I. Ethanol

   II. Nitroglycerine

   III. Urea

   Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

   1. AOnly one
   2. BOnly two
   3. CAll the three
   4. DNone

   Show answer

   Answer: (B) Only two

   Coal gasification is a process where coal is converted into a mixture of gases called syngas (synthesis gas), which primarily contains carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen (H₂).

   This syngas can then be used as a building block for various chemical products.

   (I) Ethanol — YES.

   Syngas (CO + H₂) can be converted into ethanol through catalytic processes (like Fischer-Tropsch synthesis or fermentation using special bacteria).

   This is a well-established pathway. ✓

   (II) Nitroglycerine — NO.

   Nitroglycerine is made through nitration chemistry — specifically, by treating glycerol with a mixture of concentrated nitric acid and sulfuric acid.

   This is a completely different chemical process that has nothing to do with coal gasification or syngas. ✗

   (III) Urea — YES.

   Syngas provides hydrogen, which can be combined with nitrogen (from air) to produce ammonia (NH₃) through the Haber process.

   This ammonia is then reacted with CO₂ to produce urea — one of the most widely used fertilizers.

   India's coal gasification-based fertilizer plants (like the Talcher plant in Odisha) use exactly this process. ✓

   So coal gasification can help produce ethanol and urea, but NOT nitroglycerine.

   Answer is (b) Only two.

   Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
6. 6.
   Science and Technology

   What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

   1. AThese are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
   2. BThese are explosives in military weapons
   3. CThese are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
   4. DThese are fuels for rocket propulsion

   Show answer

   Answer: (B) These are explosives in military weapons

   This is a straightforward factual question.

   CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are all high-energy explosive compounds used primarily in military applications.

   • CL-20 (also called HNIW) — One of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives known. It has very high energy density and is used in advanced munitions.

   • HMX (High Melting Explosive / Her Majesty's Explosive) — A powerful and relatively insensitive military explosive used in plastic explosives, rocket propellants, and shaped charges.

   • LLM-105 — A newer explosive developed at Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory. It is notable for being both powerful and relatively insensitive to accidental detonation, making it safer to handle.

   They are NOT refrigerant alternatives (those would be HFOs or natural refrigerants), NOT fuels for cruise missiles, and NOT rocket propulsion fuels (those would be solid/liquid propellants like hydrazine).

   The common thread is that they are all explosives used in military weapons.

   Answer is (b).

   Key learnings →Defence
7. 7.
   Science and Technology

   Consider the following statements:

   I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.

   II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).

   III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

   Which of the statements given above are correct?

   1. AI and II only
   2. BII and III only
   3. CI and III only
   4. DI, II and III

   Show answer

   Answer: (C) I and III only

   Let's evaluate each statement:

   (I) 'Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing' — CORRECT.

   The Majorana 1 chip is based on a new type of qubit called a 'topological qubit,' which uses Majorana particles.

   These qubits are expected to be much more stable and less error-prone than existing qubits, potentially making practical quantum computing feasible. ✓

   (II) 'Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS)' — INCORRECT.

   The Majorana 1 chip was introduced by Microsoft, not AWS.

   Microsoft announced this chip in February 2025 as a breakthrough in topological quantum computing.

   AWS has its own quantum computing efforts (like Amazon Braket), but the Majorana 1 is specifically a Microsoft product. ✗

   (III) 'Deep learning is a subset of machine learning' — CORRECT.

   This is a fundamental concept in AI:

   • Artificial Intelligence (AI) is the broadest category
   • Machine Learning (ML) is a subset of AI
   • Deep Learning (DL) is a subset of ML.

   Deep learning uses multi-layered neural networks and is a specialized technique within the broader field of machine learning. ✓

   Statements I and III are correct. Answer is (c).

   Key learnings →IT & Computing
8. 8.
   Science and Technology

   With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

   I. They are man-made proteins.

   II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.

   III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

   Which of the statements given above are correct?

   1. AI and II only
   2. BII and III only
   3. CI and III only
   4. DI, II and III

   Show answer

   Answer: (D) I, II and III

   Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are frequently in the news due to their growing role in treating diseases.

   Let's check each statement:

   (I) 'They are man-made proteins' — CORRECT.

   Monoclonal antibodies are produced in laboratories.

   Scientists first identify an antibody that binds to a specific target, then mass-produce identical copies (clones) of that single antibody using cell cultures.

   The word 'monoclonal' means 'from a single clone.' ✓

   (II) 'They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens' — CORRECT.

   Monoclonal antibodies work by binding precisely to specific antigens (proteins on the surface of cells, viruses, or other targets).

   This binding can mark diseased cells for destruction by the immune system, block harmful signals, or deliver drugs directly to target cells. ✓

   (III) 'They are used in treating viral infections like Nipah virus' — CORRECT.

   Monoclonal antibody m102.4 has been used as an experimental treatment for Nipah virus infections.

   During outbreaks in India (especially in Kerala), monoclonal antibody therapy has been considered as a treatment option.

   mAbs are also used against other viruses — for example, Regeneron and Eli Lilly developed mAbs for COVID-19. ✓

   All three statements are correct.

   Answer is (d).

   Key learnings →Health
9. 9.
   Science and Technology

   Consider the following statements:

   I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.

   II. No virus can infect bacteria.

   III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

   How many of the statements given above are correct?

   1. AOnly one
   2. BOnly two
   3. CAll the three
   4. DNone

   Show answer

   Answer: (D) None

   All three statements use the absolute word 'No virus can...', which makes them easy to disprove — you just need one counter-example for each.

   (I) 'No virus can survive in ocean waters' — FALSE.

   Oceans are teeming with viruses!

   Marine viruses (especially bacteriophages that infect ocean bacteria) are the most abundant biological entities on Earth — estimated at 10³¹ viruses in the oceans.

   They play a crucial role in marine ecosystems by controlling bacterial populations and cycling nutrients.

   ✓ False.

   (II) 'No virus can infect bacteria' — FALSE.

   Bacteriophages (or simply 'phages') are viruses that specifically infect bacteria.

   They were discovered over a century ago and are being studied today as alternatives to antibiotics (phage therapy).

   Every type of bacteria is susceptible to infection by specific phages.

   ✓ False.

   (III) 'No virus can change cellular transcriptional activity in host cells' — FALSE.

   Many viruses hijack the host cell's machinery and alter its gene expression (transcription).

   For example, HIV integrates its genetic material into the host cell's DNA and changes what genes are expressed.

   Many viruses shut down host protein synthesis and redirect the cell to produce viral proteins instead.

   ✓ False.

   All three statements are false, so zero statements are correct.

   Answer is (d) None.

   Key learnings →Health
10. 10.
    Environment

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

    Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.

    Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Both statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

    This is an assertion-reason type question.

    Statement I (Assertion):

    Activated carbon is effective at removing pollutants from industrial effluents. — This is a well-established fact.

    Statement II:

    Activated carbon has a large surface area and strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. — CORRECT. Activated carbon is 'activated' through a process (heating with steam or chemicals) that creates millions of tiny pores, giving it an enormous surface area — typically 500 to 1500 m² per gram! This massive surface area provides abundant sites for pollutant molecules and heavy metal ions to attach (adsorb). This directly explains WHY activated carbon is such a good pollutant remover. ✓ Correct AND explains Statement I.

    Statement III:

    Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. — CORRECT. Activated carbon can be made from coconut shells, rice husks, wood chips, bamboo, agricultural waste, and even sewage sludge — all carbon-rich waste materials. This makes it cost-effective and environmentally friendly, which is why it's an 'attractive' tool (as stated in Statement I). ✓ Correct AND explains Statement I.

    Both II and III are correct, and both explain why activated carbon is good for pollution remediation.

    Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Pollution
11. 11.
    Environment

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

    Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

    Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

    Another assertion-reason question about cement industry emissions.

    Statement I (Assertion):

    Cement industry accounts for more than 5% of global CO₂ emissions.

    — This is widely documented; some estimates put it at 7-8%.

    Statement II:

    Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

    — CORRECT. In cement manufacturing, limestone (CaCO₃) is mixed with silica-bearing clay and heated in a kiln to about 1450°C. This extremely high temperature requires burning large quantities of fossil fuel, which releases CO₂. Additionally, the clay-limestone mixture undergoes chemical reactions that form clinker. ✓ Correct and contributes to explaining emissions.

    Statement III:

    Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production.

    — CORRECT. This is the critical chemistry:

    CaCO₃ (limestone) → CaO (lime) + CO₂.

    This 'calcination' reaction directly releases CO₂ as a chemical byproduct — not from burning fuel, but from the raw material itself. This is why cement emissions are so hard to reduce even with renewable energy, because the CO₂ comes from the limestone, not just the fuel. ✓ Correct and directly explains emissions.

    Both statements are correct and both explain why cement production is so carbon-intensive (Statement II explains the high energy needed, Statement III explains the chemical CO₂ release).

    Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Climate Change
12. 12.
    Environment

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'.

    Statement II: The COP 28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.

    Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of the them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

    Statement I (Assertion):

    India did not sign the COP28 'Declaration on Climate and Health.'

    Statement II:

    The declaration is binding and makes decarbonizing the health sector mandatory. — INCORRECT.

    The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a non-binding, voluntary declaration.

    Most COP declarations are non-binding unless they are formal agreements/protocols.

    So this reason is factually wrong. ✗

    Statement III:

    If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its healthcare system may be compromised. — CORRECT.

    India's healthcare system, especially in rural and semi-urban areas, relies heavily on energy-intensive infrastructure like refrigeration for vaccines, air conditioning in hospitals, and diesel generators for power backup.

    Rapid decarbonization could strain these critical services, particularly cooling systems essential for medicine storage and patient care in a tropical climate.

    This concern about weakened healthcare resilience was a key reason India was cautious about signing. ✓

    Only Statement III is correct, and it explains why India refrained from signing.

    Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Climate Change
13. 13.
    Geography

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis.

    Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.

    Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statements II and III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statement II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

    Statement I (Assertion): A shift is taking place in Earth's rotation and axis.

    Statement II: Solar flares and coronal mass ejections bombard Earth's atmosphere with energy.

    — CORRECT as a standalone fact.

    Solar flares do release tremendous energy that affects Earth's magnetosphere and can disrupt communications.

    However, this energy affects the outermost atmosphere (ionosphere/magnetosphere) and does NOT cause long-term changes in Earth's rotation or axial shift.

    So while the statement is true, it does NOT explain Statement I.

    ✓ True but does NOT explain I.

    Statement III: As polar ice melts, water moves towards the equator.

    — CORRECT.

    When massive ice sheets at the poles melt, the water redistributes toward the equator due to gravity and Earth's rotation.

    This shifts mass from the poles to the equator, which slows Earth's rotation (like a spinning ice skater extending their arms) and causes the rotational axis to wobble — a phenomenon called 'polar motion.'

    NASA studies have confirmed this link between ice melt and changes in Earth's rotation.

    ✓ True AND explains I.

    Both statements are factually correct, but only Statement III explains the rotational shift.

    Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Geomorphology
14. 14.
    Environment

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

    Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

    Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

    Statement I (Assertion): Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is frequently discussed in global forums.

    Statement II: Article 6 sets out the principles of carbon markets. — CORRECT.

    Article 6.2 allows countries to trade carbon credits bilaterally (called Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes or ITMOs),

    and Article 6.4 establishes a new global carbon market mechanism (replacing the old CDM under the Kyoto Protocol).

    This is a major reason Article 6 is discussed so much — carbon markets are controversial and complex.

    ✓ Explains why Article 6 is frequently discussed.

    Statement III: Article 6 promotes inter-country non-market strategies. — CORRECT.

    Article 6.8 specifically deals with non-market approaches — cooperative frameworks between countries that don't involve trading carbon credits.

    These include technology transfer, capacity building, and policy coordination.

    This is another reason Article 6 gets attention — it covers both market AND non-market cooperation.

    ✓ Explains why Article 6 is frequently discussed.

    Both are correct and both explain the importance of Article 6. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Climate Change
15. 15.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

    1. AThe Asian Development Bank (ADB)
    2. BThe Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
    3. CThe New Development Bank (NDB)
    4. DThe International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

    The Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific was launched by the Asian Development Bank (ADB).

    It aims to mobilize financing for nature-based solutions — such as reforestation, wetland restoration, sustainable agriculture, and ocean conservation — across the Asia-Pacific region.

    The hub works through blended finance, grants, and partnerships with governments and private sector entities.

    The AIIB (option b) focuses more on infrastructure lending.

    The NDB (option c) is the BRICS bank.

    The IBRD (option d) is part of the World Bank Group.

    None of these launched this specific initiative.

    Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Multilateral System
16. 16.
    Environment

    With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.

    II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.

    III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI and II only
    2. BIII only
    3. CI, II and III
    4. DNone of the above statements is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) I, II and III

    Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that literally pulls CO₂ directly out of the ambient air using chemical filters or solvents.

    Once captured, this CO₂ can be used in several ways:

    (I) Carbon sequestration — YES. The captured CO₂ can be permanently stored underground in geological formations (like depleted oil wells or saline aquifers). This is the most straightforward climate benefit — removing CO₂ from the atmosphere and locking it away. ✓

    (II) Plastic production and food processing — YES. Captured CO₂ is a carbon source that can be used as a feedstock for making plastics (carbon-based polymers). In food processing, CO₂ is used for carbonation of beverages, as a preservative in food packaging (modified atmosphere packaging), and in processes like decaffeination. ✓

    (III) Synthetic aviation fuel — YES. Captured CO₂ can be combined with green hydrogen (produced from renewable energy) to create synthetic kerosene — a low-carbon jet fuel. Aviation is one of the hardest sectors to decarbonize, and synthetic fuels from DAC are seen as a promising solution. Companies like Climeworks and Carbon Engineering are already working on this. ✓

    All three statements are correct. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
17. 17.
    Environment

    Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

    I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.

    II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.

    III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BI and III
    3. CII only
    4. DII and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) II and III

    Let's evaluate each statement about the Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula, scientific name: Poecilotheria metallica):

    (I) 'It is an omnivorous crustacean' — INCORRECT on two counts.

    First, a tarantula is an arachnid (spider), NOT a crustacean.

    Crustaceans include crabs, shrimp, and lobsters — a completely different class of arthropods.

    Second, tarantulas are carnivores/insectivores — they eat insects, small lizards, and other small animals.

    They are NOT omnivores. ✗ (Two mistakes in one statement!)

    (II) 'Its natural habitat in India is limited to some forest areas' — CORRECT.

    The Gooty tarantula is found only in a very small area of deciduous forest near Giddalur and Nandyal in Andhra Pradesh.

    It has an extremely restricted range, which is why it is classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. ✓

    (III) 'In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species' — CORRECT.

    The Gooty tarantula lives in trees (arboreal), making its home in holes and crevices in tall trees.

    This is unusual because many tarantula species are ground-dwelling.

    Its striking metallic blue coloration makes it one of the most visually spectacular spiders in the world. ✓

    Statements II and III are correct. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
18. 18.
    Environment

    Consider the following statements:

    I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.

    II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.

    III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest source of CO₂ emissions in India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and III only
    2. BII only
    3. CII and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) II and III only

    Let's check each statement about India's carbon emissions:

    (I) 'CO₂ emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita' — INCORRECT.

    India's per capita CO₂ emissions are approximately 1.9-2.0 tonnes per year (as of recent data).

    While this is much lower than countries like the US (~15 t/capita) or China (~8 t/capita), it is still far above 0.5 tonnes.

    The statement significantly understates India's per capita emissions. ✗

    (II) 'India ranks second in Asia-Pacific in CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion' — CORRECT.

    China is the largest emitter in the Asia-Pacific region (and globally), and India is the second largest.

    India surpassed Japan to take this position.

    Overall globally, India is the third-largest CO₂ emitter after China and the US. ✓

    (III) 'Electricity and heat producers are the largest source of CO₂ emissions in India' — CORRECT.

    India's power sector (electricity generation and heat production) is the single largest source of CO₂ emissions, primarily because India still relies heavily on coal-fired thermal power plants for about 70% of its electricity generation. ✓

    Statements II and III are correct. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Climate Change
19. 19.
    Environment

    Consider the following pairs:

    	Plant	Description
    I.	Cassava	Woody shrub
    II.	Ginger	Herb with pseudostem
    III.	Malabar spinach	Herbaceous climber
    IV.	Mint	Annual shrub
    V.	Papaya	Woody shrub

    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly two
    2. BOnly three
    3. COnly four
    4. DAll the five

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Only three

    This question tests knowledge of plant growth forms (habit).

    Let's check each pair:

    (I) Cassava — Woody shrub: CORRECT. Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is indeed a woody shrub, growing 1-3 meters tall with a woody stem. It is widely cultivated in tropical regions for its starchy tuberous root. ✓

    (II) Ginger — Herb with pseudostem: CORRECT. Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a herbaceous plant. What appears to be its 'stem' above ground is actually a pseudostem — a false stem made of tightly rolled leaf sheaths (similar to banana plants). The actual stem is the rhizome (underground). ✓

    (III) Malabar spinach — Herbaceous climber: CORRECT. Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a fast-growing vine/climber with soft, herbaceous (non-woody) stems. It climbs by twining around supports. ✓

    (IV) Mint — Annual shrub: INCORRECT. Mint (Mentha) is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub. It is herbaceous (soft stems, not woody) and perennial (lives for more than two years). It spreads aggressively through underground runners. ✗

    (V) Papaya — Woody shrub: INCORRECT. Papaya (Carica papaya) is often mistaken for a tree, but it is actually a giant herbaceous plant (mega-herb). Its trunk-like stem is soft, hollow, and does not produce true wood. It is NOT a woody shrub. ✗

    Three pairs (I, II, III) are correct. Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
20. 20.
    Environment

    With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

    I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.

    II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen.

    III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II
    2. BII only
    3. CI and III
    4. DNone of the above statements is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) II only

    (I) 'Rainforests produce more oxygen than oceans' — INCORRECT.

    This is a common misconception.

    Oceans produce more oxygen than all land-based forests combined.

    Marine phytoplankton (tiny floating plants/algae) and photosynthetic cyanobacteria in the oceans are responsible for 50-80% of Earth's oxygen production.

    Tropical rainforests, while important, also consume much of the oxygen they produce through respiration and decomposition.

    ✗

    (II) 'Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen' — CORRECT.

    This is the key fact.

    Phytoplankton like diatoms and cyanobacteria like Prochlorococcus (the most abundant photosynthetic organism on Earth) carry out photosynthesis in the ocean surface waters and produce roughly 50% or more of global oxygen.

    ✓

    (III) 'Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than atmospheric air' — INCORRECT.

    It's actually the opposite!

    Atmospheric air contains about 21% oxygen (210,000 ppm), while even well-oxygenated surface water contains only about 6-8 mg/L of dissolved oxygen.

    Water holds far LESS oxygen than air because gases dissolve poorly in water compared to their concentration in the atmosphere.

    ✗

    Only Statement II is correct.

    Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
21. 21.
    Modern Indian History

    Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

    I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.

    II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy (1772-1833) is often called the Father of Modern India or the Father of the Indian Renaissance.

    (I) 'He possessed great love and respect for traditional philosophical systems of the East' — CORRECT.

    Roy was deeply influenced by Vedantic philosophy, the Upanishads, and Eastern philosophical traditions.

    He translated the Upanishads and the Vedas into Bengali and English.

    He founded the Brahmo Sabha (later Brahmo Samaj) based on the monotheistic teachings he found in the Upanishads.

    He also studied Islamic and Buddhist philosophy.

    His respect for Eastern thought was genuine and deep. ✓

    (II) 'He desired his countrymen to accept rational and scientific approach and human dignity and social equality' — CORRECT.

    Despite his respect for tradition, Roy was a passionate reformer.

    He campaigned against Sati (the burning of widows), fought for women's education and property rights, advocated for freedom of the press, and promoted modern education including English and Western sciences.

    He believed in the rational core of Indian philosophy while rejecting superstition and social evils like caste discrimination. ✓

    The beauty of Roy's philosophy was that he combined both — respect for India's philosophical heritage AND a push for modern, rational reform.

    Both statements are correct. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Socio-Religious Reform Movements
22. 22.
    Modern Indian History

    Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

    I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth

    II. Observance of strict non-violence

    III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public

    IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

    How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll the four

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Only three

    The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) was launched under Gandhi's leadership.

    Let's check which items were actually part of the programme:

    (I) Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth — YES.

    Boycotting British law courts and foreign (especially British) cloth were key elements of the Non-Cooperation programme.

    Indians were encouraged to use swadeshi goods and settle disputes through private arbitration. ✓

    (II) Observance of strict non-violence — YES.

    Gandhi made non-violence an absolute condition of the movement.

    In fact, when violence erupted at Chauri Chaura in February 1922, Gandhi called off the entire movement because the principle of non-violence was violated. ✓

    (III) Retention of titles and honours without using them in public — NO.

    The programme called for the SURRENDER and RENUNCIATION of titles and honours conferred by the British government, not merely avoiding their public use.

    Leaders like Rabindranath Tagore returned his knighthood.

    Simply keeping the title but not using it publicly was NOT acceptable under the programme. ✗

    (IV) Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes — YES.

    Since courts were being boycotted, alternative dispute resolution mechanisms were needed.

    The programme called for establishing panchayats to settle civil and criminal disputes within communities. ✓

    Three items (I, II, IV) were parts of the programme.

    Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929)
23. 23.
    Ancient and Medieval Indian History

    The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

    1. Aa water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
    2. Ba large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
    3. Ca larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
    4. Da large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by handara

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

    Araghatta was an ancient Indian irrigation device.

    The correct description is a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes.

    Here's how it worked:

    A large wheel was set up vertically near a well or water source.

    Earthen pots were attached around the wheel's rim (at the ends of the spokes).

    As the wheel turned (usually driven by bullocks walking in a circle), the pots dipped into the water at the bottom, filled up, and rose to the top where the water spilled out into an irrigation channel.

    This is essentially the Persian wheel (also called 'rahat' in Hindi), which has been used in India since ancient times.

    Kautilya's Arthashastra mentions various water-lifting devices, and the Araghatta is one of the most significant.

    It was a major improvement over simpler methods like pulling water up with a rope and bucket, as it could lift water continuously.

    The other options describe simpler devices — leather bags on pulleys, single pots driven by bullocks, or hand-pulled buckets — none of which matches the wheel-based mechanism of the Araghatta.

    Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Pre-History and Harappan Civilization
24. 24.
    Ancient and Medieval Indian History

    Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?

    1. AMahendravarman I
    2. BSimhavishnu
    3. CNarasimhavarman I
    4. DSimhavarman

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Mahendravarman I

    Mahendravarman I was a Pallava king who ruled from approximately 600-630 CE.

    He was a remarkably versatile ruler — a warrior, an artist, a poet, and a patron of architecture.

    His titles reveal his diverse talents:

    • Mattavilasa — meaning 'one who delights in intoxication/revelry.' He wrote a famous Sanskrit play called 'Mattavilasa Prahasana' (The Delight of the Drunkards), a one-act farce.
    • Vichitrachitta — meaning 'one with a curious/wonderful mind,' reflecting his intellectual and artistic nature.
    • Gunabhara — meaning 'one loaded with virtues/qualities.'

    He was also known as 'Chitrakarapuli' (tiger among artists). He initiated the rock-cut temple architecture style of the Pallavas (as seen in Mandagapattu). Interestingly, he converted from Jainism to Shaivism under the influence of the saint Appar.

    Other Pallava rulers in the options: Simhavishnu was his father, Narasimhavarman I (Mamalla) was his son (who built the Mahabalipuram monuments), and Simhavarman was an earlier ruler.

    Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Early Medieval India (c. 600-1200 CE)
25. 25.
    Ancient and Medieval Indian History

    Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

    1. ASamudragupta
    2. BChandragupta II
    3. CKumaragupta I
    4. DSkandagupta

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Chandragupta II

    Fa-hien (Faxian) was a Chinese Buddhist monk and pilgrim who travelled to India around 399-412 CE to collect Buddhist texts and visit sacred Buddhist sites.

    He arrived in India during the reign of Chandragupta II (also known as Vikramaditya), who ruled the Gupta Empire from approximately 375-415 CE. This was the golden age of the Gupta Empire, and Fa-hien's account provides valuable information about Indian society during this period.

    Key observations by Fa-hien:

    • He noted that people were generally prosperous,
    • the administration was mild,
    • punishments were not harsh,
    • and the road system was well-maintained.

    He was particularly impressed by the charitable hospitals and rest houses.

    Important: Don't confuse Fa-hien with Hiuen Tsang (Xuanzang), another Chinese pilgrim who came to India much later, during Harsha's reign (7th century CE). Also remember that I-Tsing was yet another Chinese pilgrim who visited India in the late 7th century.

    Samudragupta (option a) was Chandragupta II's father, while Kumaragupta I (option c) and Skandagupta (option d) were later Gupta rulers. Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →The Gupta Empire
26. 26.
    Ancient and Medieval Indian History

    Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

    1. AAmoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
    2. BPrataparudra (Kakatiya)
    3. CRajendra I (Chola)
    4. DVishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Rajendra I (Chola)

    Rajendra I (also known as Rajendra Chola I) was one of the greatest rulers of the Chola dynasty, reigning from 1014 to 1044 CE.

    He is famous for his extraordinary naval expeditions, particularly the campaign against the Srivijaya Empire.

    The Srivijaya Empire was a powerful maritime kingdom based in Sumatra (modern-day Indonesia) that controlled the strategically vital Strait of Malacca — the key shipping route between India and China.

    Around 1025 CE, Rajendra I launched a massive naval campaign against Srivijaya. His navy sailed across the Bay of Bengal and attacked multiple Srivijaya territories including parts of the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, and nearby islands.

    Why did he attack? The Srivijaya Empire was disrupting Chola trade routes to China and Southeast Asia. By defeating them, Rajendra I secured Chola commercial interests in the region.

    This naval expedition is remarkable because it was one of the few instances in ancient Indian history where a kingdom projected military power overseas across an ocean. It demonstrates the Chola dynasty's exceptional naval capabilities.

    The other rulers listed — Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta), Prataparudra (Kakatiya), and Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala) — were all important in peninsular India but did not conduct overseas military campaigns.

    Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Early Medieval India (c. 600-1200 CE)
27. 27.
    Ancient and Medieval Indian History

    With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:

    	Territorial Region	River flowing in the region
    I.	Asmaka	Godavari
    II.	Kamboja	Vipas
    III.	Avanti	Mahanadi
    IV.	Kosala	Sarayu

    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll the four

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Only two

    This question tests knowledge of the Mahajanapadas (16 great kingdoms) of ancient India and the rivers associated with their regions:

    (I) Asmaka — Godavari: CORRECT. Asmaka (also spelled Assaka) was located in the Deccan region, on the banks of the river Godavari. Its capital was Potana/Potali (modern Paithan in Maharashtra). It was the only Mahajanapada south of the Vindhyas. ✓

    (II) Kamboja — Vipas (Beas): INCORRECT. Kamboja was located in the far northwest of the Indian subcontinent, in the area around modern-day Afghanistan/northern Pakistan (around the Hindukush mountains). It was associated with the Kabul River region, not the Vipas (Beas), which flows through Punjab. ✗

    (III) Avanti — Mahanadi: INCORRECT. Avanti was located in western-central India (modern Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh), with its capital at Ujjain (northern Avanti) and Mahishmati (southern Avanti). It was associated with the Sipra (Kshipra) river, NOT the Mahanadi. The Mahanadi flows through Chhattisgarh and Odisha, which is much further east. ✗

    (IV) Kosala — Sarayu: CORRECT. Kosala was located in the modern-day Awadh (eastern UP) region, with its capital at Ayodhya, which sits on the banks of the Sarayu river. This is also significant from the Ramayana context — Lord Rama's capital Ayodhya is on the Sarayu. ✓

    Two pairs (I and IV) are correct. Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Mahajanapadas, Buddhism, Jainism and Pre-Mauryan India
28. 28.
    Art and Culture

    The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in:

    1. ADelhi
    2. BGwalior
    3. CUjjain
    4. DLahore

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Lahore

    Vishnu Digambar Paluskar (1872-1931) was a pioneering Indian musician who revolutionized Indian classical music education by making it accessible to the common public.

    He established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901. This was revolutionary because, until then, Indian classical music was taught primarily through the guru-shishya parampara (teacher-student tradition) within closed circles, often restricted to hereditary musicians. Paluskar's school opened music education to the general public and introduced a systematic, institutionalized approach to music teaching.

    Later, he established another branch of Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Mumbai, and eventually other branches spread across India, including one in Delhi. This is why Delhi (option a) is a common wrong answer — people associate the name with the Delhi institution, but the FIRST one was in Lahore.

    Gwalior (option b) is significant in Indian music as the home of the Gwalior gharana, and Ujjain (option c) is a famous cultural city, but neither was the location of the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya.

    Answer is (d) Lahore.

    Key learnings →Indian Music, Dance and Theatre
29. 29.
    Ancient and Medieval Indian History

    Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the:

    1. Avillage-level administration
    2. Bdistrict-level administration
    3. Cprovincial administration
    4. Dlevel of the central administration

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) district-level administration

    The Mauryan Empire had a well-organized administrative system with officials at different levels.

    Ashokan inscriptions mention several categories of officers:

    • Pradeshika — The provincial officer who was responsible for touring the districts and overseeing administration at the district level. Think of this as a district-level inspector/supervisor.

    • Rajuka — The officer responsible for land measurement, assessment, and revenue at the district level. Ashoka's inscriptions specifically mention that Rajukas were given authority over the welfare and happiness of people in their jurisdiction. They were also given judicial authority to award punishments and rewards.

    • Yukta — A subordinate officer at the district level who assisted in accounting, record-keeping, and secretarial functions.

    All three operated at the DISTRICT level — above the village administration (which had the Gramika/village headman) but below the provincial administration (which was headed by Kumaras or princes in major provinces like Taxila, Ujjain, Tosali, and Suvarnagiri).

    They were NOT village-level (too senior), NOT provincial (not senior enough), and NOT central administration (they worked in the field, not at the capital).

    Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →The Mauryan Empire
30. 30.
    Modern Indian History

    Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

    I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.

    II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    Let's evaluate both statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement:

    (I) 'Congress declared attainment of Swaraj by all legitimate and peaceful means as its objective' — CORRECT.

    At the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920, the Congress formally adopted the goal of 'Swaraj' (self-rule) to be achieved by peaceful and legitimate means.

    This was a significant shift from the earlier goal of seeking reforms within the British system.

    The word 'Swaraj' was left deliberately vague — it could mean dominion status or complete independence, depending on interpretation. ✓

    (II) 'It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes as the next stage' — CORRECT.

    Gandhi planned the movement in phases.

    The first phase involved the surrender of titles, boycott of schools/courts/legislatures, and promotion of swadeshi.

    The NEXT stage — civil disobedience including mass non-payment of taxes — was planned for later, to be launched only if Swaraj was not achieved within a year or if the government resorted to repression.

    However, this second phase was never fully implemented because Gandhi called off the movement after the Chauri Chaura incident in February 1922. ✓

    Both statements are correct. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929)
31. 31.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to investments, consider the following:

    I. Bonds

    II. Hedge Funds

    III. Stocks

    IV. Venture Capital

    How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll the four

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are privately pooled investment vehicles that collect funds from sophisticated investors and invest them according to a defined investment policy.

    In India, AIFs are regulated by SEBI under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012.

    (I) Bonds — NOT an AIF.

    Bonds are standard, conventional fixed-income securities traded in regular markets.

    They are traditional investment instruments. ✗

    (II) Hedge Funds — YES, an AIF.

    Hedge funds are pooled investment funds that use diverse and complex strategies (like short-selling, leverage, derivatives) to generate returns.

    Under SEBI regulations, hedge funds fall under Category III AIFs. ✓

    (III) Stocks — NOT an AIF.

    Stocks (equity shares) are standard market instruments listed and traded on stock exchanges.

    They are conventional investments. ✗

    (IV) Venture Capital — YES, an AIF.

    Venture capital funds invest in early-stage startups and small businesses with high growth potential.

    Under SEBI regulations, venture capital funds fall under Category I AIFs. ✓

    The key distinction:

    • Bonds and stocks are traditional/conventional investments available to all investors through regular market channels.
    • Hedge funds and venture capital are 'alternative' because they use non-traditional strategies, are available mainly to qualified investors, and are pooled investment vehicles with specific risk-return profiles.

    Two items (Hedge Funds and Venture Capital) are AIFs.

    Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
32. 32.
    Indian Economy

    Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

    I. Buying and selling Government bonds

    II. Buying and selling foreign currency

    III. Pension fund management

    IV. Lending to private companies

    V. Printing and distributing currency notes

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII, III and IV
    3. CI, III, IV and V
    4. DI, II and V

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) I, II and V

    The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) earns income from several activities.

    Let's check each:

    (I) Buying and selling Government bonds — YES.

    RBI holds a large portfolio of government securities and earns interest income on them.

    It also conducts open market operations (buying/selling government bonds) as part of monetary policy, which generates trading profits.

    This is RBI's largest source of income. ✓

    (II) Buying and selling foreign currency — YES.

    RBI manages India's foreign exchange reserves (over $600 billion).

    It earns returns on these reserve investments (in foreign bonds, deposits, etc.) and can also earn from forex trading operations when it intervenes in currency markets. ✓

    (III) Pension fund management — NO.

    RBI does not manage pension funds.

    Pension funds in India are managed by entities like EPFO (Employees' Provident Fund Organisation), NPS Trust, and fund managers appointed by PFRDA. ✗

    (IV) Lending to private companies — NO.

    RBI does not directly lend to private companies.

    It lends to commercial banks (through repo operations, MSF, etc.), but not directly to corporate borrowers.

    Direct lending to companies is the job of commercial banks and financial institutions. ✗

    (V) Printing and distributing currency notes — YES.

    RBI earns seigniorage — the difference between the face value of currency notes and the cost of producing them.

    For example, if a ₹500 note costs ₹5 to print, the remaining ₹495 represents seigniorage income for RBI. ✓

    Items I, II, and V are correct sources of RBI income.

    Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
33. 33.
    Indian Polity

    With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

    	Organization	Some of its functions	It works under
    I.	Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
    II.	Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
    III.	Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

    In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Only one

    This question has three rows of information about organizations — we need to check if the function AND the ministry are correctly matched for each:

    Row I: Directorate of Enforcement (ED) — Enforcement of Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 — Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs.

    • The function is CORRECT — ED does enforce the FEOA, 2018 (along with PMLA and FEMA).
    • But the ministry is WRONG — ED works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, NOT MHA.
    • Row I is INCORRECTLY matched. ✗

    Row II: Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) — Enforces Customs Act, 1962 — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

    • The function is CORRECT — DRI is the apex anti-smuggling agency that enforces the Customs Act.
    • The ministry is CORRECT — DRI works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
    • Row II is CORRECTLY matched. ✓

    Row III: Directorate General of Systems and Data Management — Big data analytics for tax officers — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

    • The function is WRONG — Big data analytics for tax enforcement is done by the Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM), not the DG of Systems and Data Management. The DG Systems deals with IT infrastructure and systems for tax administration.
    • Row III is INCORRECTLY matched. ✗

    Only one row (Row II) is correctly matched. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
34. 34.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).

    II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) II only

    (I) 'RBI mandates all listed companies to submit BRSR' — INCORRECT.

    The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is mandated by SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), NOT by RBI.

    SEBI issued this requirement through its Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements (LODR) Regulations.

    The BRSR replaced the older Business Responsibility Report (BRR) from FY 2022-23 for the top 1000 listed companies by market capitalization.

    RBI is the banking regulator; SEBI is the capital markets and securities regulator. ✗

    (II) 'BRSR disclosures are largely non-financial in nature' — CORRECT.

    The BRSR focuses on ESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance) disclosures.

    It covers things like:

    • carbon emissions
    • water usage
    • waste management
    • employee welfare
    • diversity
    • community engagement
    • corporate governance practices, etc.

    These are fundamentally non-financial disclosures that go beyond traditional profit-and-loss reporting to capture a company's broader impact on environment and society. ✓

    Only Statement II is correct. Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
35. 35.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

    Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

    Statement I:
    'Income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing is exempted from tax.' — INCORRECT.

    This is a common misconception.

    Under the Income Tax Act, 'agricultural income' has a specific legal definition — it covers income from land used for agriculture (like crop cultivation, rent from agricultural land).

    Allied activities like poultry farming, dairy farming, wool rearing, fisheries, etc. are NOT classified as 'agricultural income' under the IT Act, even though they are related to farming.

    Income from these activities IS taxable as business income. ✗

    Statement II:
    'Rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the Income-tax Act, 1961.' — CORRECT.

    Under Section 2(14) of the Income Tax Act, 'capital asset' explicitly EXCLUDES agricultural land in rural areas (defined by population criteria).

    This means:
    (a) if you sell rural agricultural land, there is no capital gains tax because it's not a capital asset, and
    (b) rural agricultural land is not subject to wealth tax provisions.

    However, agricultural land in urban areas IS treated as a capital asset and IS subject to capital gains tax on sale. ✓

    Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
36. 36.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.

    II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.

    III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) I and III only

    (I) 'India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP)' — CORRECT.

    India joined the MSP (also known as MSP+) in June 2023.

    The MSP is a US-led partnership of countries aimed at building resilient and secure supply chains for critical minerals.

    Other members include the US, EU, Australia, Canada, Japan, South Korea, and others. ✓

    (II) 'India is resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals' — INCORRECT.

    India identified 30 critical minerals in 2023, but it is NOT resource-rich in all of them.

    India has significant reserves of some (like rare earths, titanium, graphite) but is heavily import-dependent for others (like lithium, cobalt, nickel, germanium).

    This import dependence is precisely WHY India joined the MSP — to secure supply chains for minerals it lacks domestically. ✗

    (III) 'Parliament in 2023 amended the MMDR Act for critical minerals' — CORRECT.

    In August 2023, Parliament passed the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023.

    This amendment empowered the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licenses for certain critical and strategic minerals (listed in a new schedule), taking this power away from the state governments for these specific minerals.

    This was done to fast-track critical mineral exploration and production. ✓

    Statements I and III are correct. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
37. 37.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

    Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

    Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

    This is an assertion-reason question about the risk difference between bondholders and stockholders.

    Statement I (Assertion): Bondholders are at lower risk than stockholders. — This is generally true.

    Statement II: Bondholders are lenders, stockholders are owners. — CORRECT. When you buy a bond, you are essentially lending money to the company. The company has a legal obligation to pay you back (principal) plus interest. When you buy stock, you become a part-owner of the company. Owners bear the residual risk — they get what's left after all obligations are met. This fundamental difference explains the risk difference. ✓ Explains Statement I.

    Statement III: Bondholders are prioritized over stockholders for repayment. — CORRECT. In case of company liquidation or bankruptcy, bondholders (creditors) are paid BEFORE stockholders (owners). The order is:

    • secured creditors
    • unsecured creditors (including bondholders)
    • preference shareholders
    • equity shareholders.

    Equity holders are last in line and may get nothing if assets are insufficient. This priority structure is another reason bondholders face lower risk. ✓ Explains Statement I.

    Both statements are correct and both explain why bondholders are at lower risk. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
38. 38.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.

    II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time.

    III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) I and II only

    (I) 'India accounts for a very large portion of global equity option contracts' — CORRECT.

    India has become the world's largest market for equity options trading.

    In recent years, India's share of global equity options trading has exceeded 75-80% by volume, driven largely by retail participation in index options (especially Nifty and Bank Nifty options on NSE). ✓

    (II) 'India's stock market overtook Hong Kong's' — CORRECT.

    In late 2023/early 2024, India's stock market (BSE/NSE combined) overtook Hong Kong's to become the fourth-largest stock market in the world by market capitalization.

    This was a significant milestone reflecting India's rapid economic growth and investor confidence. ✓

    (III) 'No regulatory body exists to warn investors about options trading risks' — INCORRECT.

    SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is the regulatory body that specifically warns small investors about the risks of derivative/options trading.

    In fact, SEBI released a study in 2023 showing that 93% of individual F&O traders incurred losses.

    SEBI has also taken active steps against unregistered financial advisors (so-called 'finfluencers') who give unauthorized investment advice on social media. ✗

    Statements I and II are correct. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
39. 39.
    Environment

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

    Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

    Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

    Statement I (Assertion): Circular economy reduces greenhouse gas emissions.

    Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. — CORRECT. A circular economy is based on the principles of 'reduce, reuse, recycle, and recover.'

    Instead of the linear model (take → make → use → dispose), resources are kept in use for as long as possible.

    This means less virgin raw material extraction (mining, logging, drilling), which directly reduces the energy consumed and emissions generated in extraction, processing, and transportation of new materials.

    ✓ Explains Statement I.

    Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in production. — CORRECT. By designing products for durability, repairability, and recyclability, and by closing material loops, a circular economy significantly reduces waste.

    Less waste means less landfill methane emissions, less energy spent on waste management, and less need to produce replacement goods.

    ✓ Explains Statement I.

    Both mechanisms — reducing raw material use and reducing waste — contribute to lowering greenhouse gas emissions.

    For example, recycling aluminum uses 95% less energy than producing it from bauxite ore.

    Both statements are correct and both explain Statement I.

    Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Pollution
40. 40.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.

    II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.

    III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) I and II only

    (I) 'Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in assets' — CORRECT.

    This is the definition of capital receipts in government accounting.

    Borrowings create a liability (the government must repay the loan).

    Disinvestment (selling government-owned shares in PSUs) reduces the government's assets.

    Recovery of loans given to states/entities also reduces assets (the outstanding loan amount goes down). ✓

    (II) 'Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts' — CORRECT.

    Government borrowings (through bonds, treasury bills) are capital receipts because they create a liability.

    Disinvestment proceeds (selling PSU shares) are capital receipts because they reduce the government's asset base.

    Both are classified as capital receipts in the Union Budget. ✓

    (III) 'Interest received on loans creates a liability' — INCORRECT.

    Interest received on loans given by the government is a REVENUE RECEIPT, not a capital receipt.

    It does not create any liability, nor does it reduce any asset — it's simply income earned on an existing asset (the loan).

    Revenue receipts are routine, recurring income that neither create liability nor reduce assets.

    Interest, dividends, and tax collections are all revenue receipts. ✗

    Statements I and II are correct. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
41. 41.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    Consider the following countries:

    I. Austria

    II. Bulgaria

    III. Croatia

    IV. Serbia

    V. Sweden

    VI. North Macedonia

    How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

    1. AOnly three
    2. BOnly four
    3. COnly five
    4. DAll the six

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Only four

    Let's check each country's NATO membership status:

    (I) Austria — NOT a NATO member.

    Austria has been constitutionally neutral since 1955 (the Austrian State Treaty).

    It is an EU member but has maintained its military neutrality and has not joined NATO. ✗

    (II) Bulgaria — NATO member since 2004.

    Bulgaria joined NATO as part of the major eastern expansion round. ✓

    (III) Croatia — NATO member since 2009.

    Croatia joined along with Albania. ✓

    (IV) Serbia — NOT a NATO member.

    Serbia maintains military neutrality and has historically close ties with Russia.

    The 1999 NATO bombing of Yugoslavia/Serbia during the Kosovo War makes NATO membership politically very difficult in Serbia. ✗

    (V) Sweden — NATO member since 2024.

    Sweden abandoned its long tradition of military non-alignment and officially joined NATO in March 2024, prompted by Russia's invasion of Ukraine.

    Finland had joined earlier in April 2023. ✓

    (VI) North Macedonia — NATO member since 2020.

    After resolving the long-standing name dispute with Greece (changing its name from 'Macedonia' to 'North Macedonia' under the Prespa Agreement of 2018), it was able to join NATO. ✓

    Four countries (Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, North Macedonia) are NATO members.

    Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Multilateral System
42. 42.
    Geography

    Consider the following countries:

    I. Bolivia

    II. Brazil

    III. Colombia

    IV. Ecuador

    V. Paraguay

    VI. Venezuela

    Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

    1. AOnly two
    2. BOnly three
    3. COnly four
    4. DOnly five

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Only four

    The Andes is the longest continental mountain range in the world, stretching about 7,000 km along the western coast of South America.

    It passes through seven countries: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina.

    From the given list:

    (I) Bolivia — YES. The Andes run through western Bolivia, including the Altiplano (high plateau) where La Paz is located. ✓

    (II) Brazil — NO. Brazil is east of the Andes. Its terrain includes the Amazon Basin and the Brazilian Highlands, but not the Andes. ✗

    (III) Colombia — YES. The Andes split into three cordilleras (ranges) in Colombia. ✓

    (IV) Ecuador — YES. The Andes run through the center of Ecuador, with volcanoes like Cotopaxi and Chimborazo. ✓

    (V) Paraguay — NO. Paraguay is a landlocked country in central South America, east of the Andes and west of Brazil. Its terrain is mostly flat lowlands and the Chaco region. ✗

    (VI) Venezuela — YES. The northern end of the Andes extends into Venezuela (the Mérida Andes). ✓

    Four countries from the list (Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, Venezuela) have the Andes. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →World Physical Geography
43. 43.
    Geography

    Consider the following water bodies:

    I. Lake Tanganyika

    II. Lake Tonlé Sap

    III. Patos Lagoon

    Through how many of them does the equator pass?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) None

    This question requires precise knowledge of the equator's path (0° latitude):

    (I) Lake Tanganyika — The equator does NOT pass through it.

    Lake Tanganyika lies between approximately 3°S and 8°S latitude in East Africa (bordered by Tanzania, DRC, Burundi, and Zambia).

    While it is in tropical Africa, it is entirely south of the equator.

    The equator passes through nearby Lake Victoria instead. ✗

    (II) Lake Tonlé Sap — The equator does NOT pass through it.

    Tonlé Sap is in Cambodia at approximately 13°N latitude — far north of the equator.

    It is Southeast Asia's largest freshwater lake. ✗

    (III) Patos Lagoon — The equator does NOT pass through it.

    Patos Lagoon (Lagoa dos Patos) is in southern Brazil at approximately 31°S latitude — very far south of the equator.

    It is one of the largest lagoons in the world. ✗

    The equator does not pass through any of these three water bodies.

    Answer is (d) None.

    For reference, the equator passes through Lake Victoria in Africa and through parts of the Amazon River basin in South America.

    Key learnings →World Physical Geography
44. 44.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

    I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.

    II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.

    III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) I, II and III

    Let's verify each statement about turmeric during 2022-23:

    (I) 'India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric' — CORRECT.

    India dominates global turmeric production, accounting for about 75-80% of world production.

    India is also the largest exporter of turmeric.

    The country produces over 10 lakh tonnes annually. ✓

    (II) 'More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India' — CORRECT.

    India grows over 30 varieties/cultivars of turmeric, including popular ones like Lakadong (from Meghalaya, known for high curcumin content), Alleppey Finger, Erode, Salem, Rajapore, Sangli, and many more.

    Different regions have developed varieties suited to local conditions. ✓

    (III) 'Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States' — CORRECT.

    These are indeed among the top turmeric-producing states.

    Maharashtra (Sangli district), Telangana (Nizamabad), Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu (Erode — often called the 'Turmeric City') are major producers.

    Other significant producers include Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and West Bengal. ✓

    All three statements are correct. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Agriculture and Allied Sectors
45. 45.
    Geography

    Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

    I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.

    II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

    III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. AI and III only
    2. BI and II only
    3. CI, II and III
    4. DII and III only

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) I, II and III

    Continental drift theory (proposed by Alfred Wegener in 1912) suggests that all continents were once joined together as a supercontinent called Pangaea and gradually drifted apart.

    Let's check each piece of evidence:

    (I) 'Ancient rocks from Brazil coast match those from Western Africa' — YES, this is valid evidence.

    The geological formations and rock types along the eastern coast of Brazil closely match those along the western coast of Africa, suggesting these two coastlines were once joined. ✓

    (II) 'Gold deposits of Ghana derived from Brazil plateau' — YES, this is valid evidence.

    The gold-bearing rock formations in Ghana are remarkably similar to those in the Brazilian plateau.

    When the continents are fitted together, these formations align perfectly, suggesting they were part of the same geological structure before continental separation. ✓

    (III) 'Gondwana sediments from India have counterparts in six Southern Hemisphere landmasses' — YES, this is valid evidence.

    The Gondwana system of sedimentary rocks found in India has matching counterparts in Africa, South America, Australia, Antarctica, Madagascar, and the Falkland Islands.

    These identical sedimentary sequences across widely separated landmasses strongly support the idea that these lands were once part of the supercontinent Gondwana. ✓

    All three are classic pieces of evidence for continental drift. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Geomorphology
46. 46.
    Geography

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

    Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

    Statement I: 'Dust particles are more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.' — CORRECT.

    Subtropical regions have large desert areas (Sahara, Arabian, Thar, etc.) which generate enormous amounts of dust.

    The combination of dry conditions, sparse vegetation, and strong winds in these regions produces and carries more dust particles.

    Temperate regions also have seasonal dryness and agricultural activity that adds dust.

    In contrast, equatorial regions have heavy rainfall that washes dust from the air, and polar regions have ice-covered surfaces that don't generate dust. ✓

    Statement II: 'Subtropical and temperate areas have LESS dry winds.' — INCORRECT.

    This is the exact OPPOSITE of reality.

    Subtropical areas are characterized by MORE dry winds, not less.

    The subtropical high-pressure belts create dry, descending air that produces arid conditions and dry winds (like the trade winds over deserts).

    These dry winds are precisely the REASON for high dust content in these regions.

    If Statement II were true, it would actually contradict Statement I. ✗

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is not. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Climatology
47. 47.
    Geography

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

    Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

    Statement I:
    'In January, isotherms bend equatorward over land and poleward over oceans in the Northern Hemisphere.' — CORRECT.
    If you look at a January isotherm map, you'll see the isotherms dip toward the equator when they cross continents (indicating colder temperatures on land) and bulge toward the poles when they cross oceans (indicating warmer temperatures over water). ✓

    Statement II:
    'In January, ocean air is warmer than land air in the Northern Hemisphere.' — CORRECT.
    In January (winter in the Northern Hemisphere), land cools much faster than ocean water because land has a lower specific heat capacity.
    Water retains heat much longer.
    So ocean surfaces remain relatively warm while continental surfaces become very cold.
    This land-ocean temperature difference is the fundamental reason why isotherms bend the way they do. ✓

    Statement II directly explains Statement I:
    Because oceans are warmer than land in winter, isotherms curve toward the equator over cold continents and toward the poles over warm oceans.
    Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →World Physical Geography
48. 48.
    Geography

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

    Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

    Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
    3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
    4. DNeither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

    Statement I:
    'Chalk is very permeable, clay is impermeable/least permeable.' — This is correct as a general fact.

    Statement II:
    'Chalk is porous and can absorb water.' — CORRECT.
    Chalk is a soft, white limestone made of calcium carbonate.
    It has a porous structure with many interconnected tiny spaces between its particles.
    Water can enter and pass through these pores relatively easily, making chalk both porous AND permeable.
    This explains why chalk downlands have dry surfaces — water quickly seeps through the chalk into underground aquifers. ✓
    This explains why chalk is permeable (Statement I).

    Statement III:
    'Clay is not at all porous.' — INCORRECT.
    This is a tricky but important distinction.
    Clay IS actually quite porous — it has many tiny spaces between particles and can hold a lot of water.
    However, clay is IMPERMEABLE because these pore spaces are so tiny that water cannot flow through them easily.
    The clay particles swell when wet and seal the pores.
    So clay absorbs water (porous) but doesn't let it pass through (impermeable).
    Saying 'not at all porous' is factually wrong. ✗

    Only Statement II is correct, and it explains Statement I.
    Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Geomorphology
49. 49.
    Geography

    Consider the following statements:

    I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface.

    II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature.

    III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and III only
    2. BI and II only
    3. CI, II and III
    4. DII and III only

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) I, II and III

    (I) 'Without atmosphere, temperature would be below freezing everywhere' — CORRECT.

    Without the atmosphere's greenhouse effect, Earth's average surface temperature would be about -18°C (compared to the actual average of about +15°C).

    The Moon, which has virtually no atmosphere, has average surface temperature of about -23°C despite being at the same distance from the Sun as Earth. ✓

    (II) 'Heat trapped by atmosphere maintains average temperature' — CORRECT.

    The atmosphere absorbs outgoing infrared (heat) radiation from Earth's surface and re-radiates it in all directions, including back toward the surface.

    This 'greenhouse effect' traps heat and maintains Earth's temperature at a level suitable for life.

    Without this, all the heat from sunlight would escape back into space at night. ✓

    (III) 'Gases like CO₂ are good at absorbing and trapping radiation' — CORRECT.

    Greenhouse gases (CO₂, methane, water vapor, nitrous oxide) are particularly effective at absorbing infrared radiation.

    Their molecular structure allows them to vibrate and absorb specific wavelengths of heat radiation that other gases (like N₂ and O₂, which make up 99% of the atmosphere) cannot absorb.

    This is why even small concentrations of CO₂ have a significant warming effect. ✓

    All three statements are correct. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Climatology
50. 50.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

    I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor, as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

    II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    (I) 'Important for upliftment of rural poor, as majority of low-producing indigenous animals are with small/marginal farmers' — CORRECT.

    In India, about 70% of livestock owners are small and marginal farmers or landless labourers.

    These farmers predominantly keep indigenous (desi) breeds which are low-yielding but hardy and adapted to local conditions.

    Improving these breeds' productivity directly benefits the rural poor. ✓

    (II) 'Initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner' — CORRECT.

    Rashtriya Gokul Mission was launched in December 2014 under the National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development.

    Its objectives include:

    • development and conservation of indigenous bovine breeds,
    • genetic improvement of indigenous breeds through selective breeding and advanced reproductive technologies (like IVF, genomic selection),
    • establishing Gokul Grams (integrated cattle development centers),
    • and strengthening the semen station infrastructure.

    It covers both indigenous cattle AND buffalo breeds. ✓

    Both statements are correct. Answer is (c).

    Withdrawn from the question bankConstitutional & Statutory Bodies
51. 51.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.

    II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.

    III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

    Which of the statements given above are not correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) I, II and III

    The question asks which statements are NOT CORRECT.

    Let's check each:

    (I) 'Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States' — NOT CORRECT.

    Article 243B(2) of the Constitution says that panchayats at the intermediate level need NOT be constituted in states with a population not exceeding 20 lakhs.

    So small states are exempt, meaning intermediate panchayats don't exist everywhere.

    (II) 'Minimum age for intermediate panchayat membership is 30 years' — NOT CORRECT.

    Article 243F(1) states that a person must have attained the age of 21 years (not 30) to be eligible for membership of a panchayat at any level.

    The 30-year age requirement applies to the Rajya Sabha, not panchayats.

    (III) 'Chief Minister constitutes the finance commission for panchayats' — NOT CORRECT.

    Under Article 243I, the GOVERNOR of the State (not the Chief Minister) constitutes a Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of panchayats and recommend the distribution of taxes and grants.

    The Finance Commission is a constitutional body appointed by the Governor.

    All three statements are incorrect.

    Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Federalism & Local Self Government
52. 52.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

    I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.

    II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.

    III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.

    IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II
    2. BII and III
    3. CI and IV
    4. DI only

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) I only

    (I) 'BIMSTEC has seven member States till January 2025' — CORRECT.

    BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) has seven members:

    • Bangladesh
    • Bhutan
    • India
    • Myanmar
    • Nepal
    • Sri Lanka
    • Thailand. ✓

    (II) 'Came into existence with Dhaka Declaration, 1999' — INCORRECT.

    BIMSTEC was established on June 6, 1997, through the Bangkok Declaration (not Dhaka Declaration).

    It was originally called BIST-EC (Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand Economic Cooperation).

    • Myanmar joined later in 1997.
    • Nepal and Bhutan joined in 2004. ✗

    (III) 'Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding members' — INCORRECT.

    Nepal is NOT a founding member.

    The founding members in 1997 were:

    • Bangladesh
    • India
    • Sri Lanka
    • Thailand.

    Myanmar joined in late 1997.

    Nepal and Bhutan joined much later in 2004. ✗

    (IV) 'Tourism subsector is led by India' — INCORRECT.

    In BIMSTEC's sector-wise distribution of leadership, the tourism sub-sector is led by Nepal, not India.

    India leads sectors like counter-terrorism, transport, and connectivity.

    Each member country leads different sectors. ✗

    Only Statement I is correct. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Immediate Neighbourhood (South Asia)
53. 53.
    Art and Culture

    Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'?

    I. The President of India

    II. The Prime Minister of India

    III. The Chief Justice of India

    IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AII and IV only
    2. BI, II and III
    3. CII, III and IV
    4. DI and III only

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) II, III and IV

    The Gandhi Peace Prize is awarded by the Government of India since 1995 to individuals or institutions for their contributions to social, economic, and political transformation through non-violence.

    The jury consists of:

    • The Prime Minister of India (as Chairman) ✓
    • The Chief Justice of India ✓
    • The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha ✓
    • Two eminent persons nominated by the Chairman

    The President of India is NOT a member of the jury. Past recipients include Julius Nyerere, Nelson Mandela, Grameen Bank of Bangladesh, and ISRO.

    So from the given options: PM (II), CJI (III), and Leader of Opposition (IV) are on the jury. The President (I) is not. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Cultural Heritage and Institutions
54. 54.
    Science and Technology

    GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation.

    Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

    I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.

    II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.

    III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI, II and III
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI only
    4. DI and II only

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) I and II only

    (I) 'GAGAN provides additional accuracy and integrity' — CORRECT.

    GAGAN (GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) is India's Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) developed jointly by ISRO and AAI (Airports Authority of India).

    It augments GPS signals by providing correction data for better accuracy (reducing GPS errors from ~15 meters to ~3 meters) and integrity alerts (warning pilots within 6 seconds if GPS signals become unreliable). ✓

    (II) 'Allows more uniform and high-quality air traffic management' — CORRECT.

    With improved accuracy and reliability, GAGAN enables precision approaches at airports (even those without ground-based instrument landing systems), more efficient routing, and reduced separation requirements between aircraft.

    This leads to more uniform, safer, and higher-quality air traffic management across India. ✓

    (III) 'Benefits only aviation, not other modes of transportation' — INCORRECT.

    While GAGAN was designed primarily for aviation, its benefits extend to many other sectors:

    • railways (for train tracking)
    • highways (for intelligent transport systems)
    • maritime navigation
    • agriculture (precision farming)
    • surveying
    • disaster management
    • even personal navigation.

    Any application that needs improved GPS accuracy benefits from GAGAN. ✗

    Statements I and II are correct. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Space
55. 55.
    Science and Technology

    Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

    I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.

    II. Along with other countries US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) I only

    (I) 'AI Action Summit was co-chaired with India, building on Bletchley Park and Seoul Summits' — CORRECT.

    The AI Action Summit was held at the Grand Palais in Paris in February 2025.

    It was co-chaired by France and India.

    This summit was the third in a series of AI safety summits:

    • the first was held at Bletchley Park, UK (November 2023),
    • the second in Seoul, South Korea (May 2024),
    • and the third in Paris (February 2025).

    The summits represent a global effort to govern AI development safely. ✓

    (II) 'US and UK signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI' — INCORRECT.

    The US and UK notably did NOT sign the final declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI at the Paris summit.

    The US raised concerns about the declaration's approach to AI governance, particularly regarding regulation that might hinder innovation.

    The UK also did not sign.

    This was a notable point of controversy at the summit. ✗

    Only Statement I is correct. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →IT & Computing
56. 56.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    Consider the following pairs:

    	International Year	Year
    I.	International Year of the Woman Farmer	2026
    II.	International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism	2027
    III.	International Year of Peace and Trust	2025
    IV.	International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence	2029

    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll the four

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) All the four

    Let's verify each pairing:

    (I) International Year of the Woman Farmer — 2026: CORRECT. The UN General Assembly declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer to recognize women's contributions to agriculture and food security worldwide. ✓

    (II) International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism — 2027: CORRECT. The UNGA declared 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism to promote tourism that is environmentally sustainable and resilient to disruptions. ✓

    (III) International Year of Peace and Trust — 2025: CORRECT. The UNGA declared 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust, proposed by Turkmenistan. ✓

    (IV) International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence — 2029: CORRECT. The UNGA declared 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence, partly because the asteroid Apophis will make a close flyby of Earth on April 13, 2029. ✓

    All four pairs are correctly matched. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Multilateral System
57. 57.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:

    I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.

    II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.

    III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI and II
    2. BII and III
    3. CI and III
    4. DI only

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) I and II

    (I) '16th BRICS Summit held under Russia's chairship in Kazan' — CORRECT.

    The 16th BRICS Summit was held in Kazan, Russia in October 2024 under Russia's presidency.

    This was significant as the first summit after BRICS' expansion with new members. ✓

    (II) 'Indonesia became a full member of BRICS' — CORRECT.

    Indonesia officially became a full member of BRICS at the Kazan summit, along with other new members like Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE (though some had been invited earlier at the Johannesburg summit in 2023). ✓

    (III) 'Theme was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security' — INCORRECT.

    The actual theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security.'

    The key word is MULTILATERALISM (cooperation between multiple nations), not MULTICULTURALISM (diversity of cultures).

    This is a deliberate word-swap trap in the question. ✗

    Statements I and II are correct. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Multilateral System
58. 58.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

    I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.

    II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.

    III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.

    IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AIII only
    2. BII and III
    3. CI and IV
    4. DNone of the above statements is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) III only

    Let's check each statement about the Lokpal:

    (I) 'Lokpal power doesn't apply to Indian public servants posted outside India' — INCORRECT.

    The Lokpal's jurisdiction extends to all public servants as defined in the Act, regardless of where they are posted.

    A public servant posted in an Indian embassy abroad, for instance, would still be within Lokpal's jurisdiction.

    ✗

    (II) 'Only the CJI can be Chairperson' — INCORRECT.

    Under the Lokpal Act, the Chairperson can be a person who is or has been a Chief Justice of India OR a judge of the Supreme Court OR an eminent person of impeccable integrity and outstanding ability having special knowledge.

    It is NOT restricted to only the CJI.

    ✗

    (III) 'Minimum age of 45 years for Chairperson/Member' — CORRECT.

    Section 3(2) of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 clearly states that no person shall be appointed as Chairperson or Member if they are less than 45 years of age.

    ✓

    (IV) 'Lokpal cannot inquire against a sitting PM' — INCORRECT.

    The Lokpal CAN inquire into allegations against a sitting Prime Minister, but with special safeguards: the full bench must consider the case, the hearing must be in camera (private), and if the Lokpal decides not to proceed, the records cannot be made public.

    The PM is excluded only for matters related to international relations, external/internal security, public order, and atomic energy.

    ✗

    Only Statement III is correct. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
59. 59.
    Art and Culture

    Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

    I. The event was held in Delhi, India.

    II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.

    III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) I only

    (I) 'The first Kho Kho World Cup was held in Delhi' — CORRECT.

    The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup was held at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in New Delhi in January 2025, organized by the Kho Kho Federation of India. ✓

    (II) 'Indian men beat Nepal 78-40 in the final' — INCORRECT.

    The scores mentioned for men's and women's finals are swapped.

    The Indian men beat Nepal 54-36 in the final (not 78-40). ✗

    (III) 'Indian women beat Nepal 54-36 in the final' — INCORRECT.

    The Indian women beat Nepal 78-40 in the final (not 54-36).

    The scores for men and women are exchanged in the question. ✗

    Only Statement I is correct. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Handicrafts and Living Traditions
60. 60.
    Art and Culture

    Consider the following statements:

    I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Jan Nepomniachtchi.

    II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) II only

    (I) 'In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad in 2024, Gukesh defeated Nepomniachtchi to become youngest winner' — INCORRECT.

    This statement mixes up two different events.

    Gukesh Dommaraju became the youngest World Chess Champion in December 2024, but he did this by defeating Ding Liren (of China), NOT Jan Nepomniachtchi.

    Also, this happened in the World Chess Championship match, NOT in the Chess Olympiad.

    The Chess Olympiad is a team event where countries compete, while the World Championship is an individual match between two players. ✗

    (II) 'Abhimanyu Mishra holds the record of youngest Grandmaster' — CORRECT.

    Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess prodigy of Indian origin, became the world's youngest Grandmaster on June 30, 2021, at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days.

    He broke Sergey Karjakin's previous record. ✓

    Only Statement II is correct. Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Handicrafts and Living Traditions
61. 61.
    Science and Technology

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.

    Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

    Statement I: 'Some rare earth elements are used in flat TV screens and computer monitors.' — CORRECT.

    Rare earth elements like europium, terbium, and yttrium are used in display technologies.

    They serve as phosphors in screens — materials that emit visible light when excited by electrons or UV radiation.

    Statement II: 'Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.' — CORRECT.

    Several rare earth elements exhibit excellent phosphorescent/luminescent properties.

    Europium gives red phosphorescence, terbium gives green, and cerium/yttrium combinations produce other colors.

    These elements can absorb energy and re-emit it as visible light, which is exactly the property needed for display screens.

    Statement II EXPLAINS Statement I: The reason rare earth elements are used in screens is precisely BECAUSE of their phosphorescent properties.

    Screens need materials that can convert electrical/UV energy into visible light — and rare earths are exceptionally good at this.

    Without their phosphorescent properties, they would have no role in display technology.

    Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Energy & Materials
62. 62.
    Science and Technology

    Consider the following statements:

    I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready railway system by 2028.

    II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.

    III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

    Which of the statements given above are not correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) I and II only

    The question asks which statements are NOT correct:

    (I) 'National Rail Plan targets 2028' — NOT CORRECT.
    The National Rail Plan (NRP) was created to develop a future-ready railway system by 2030, not 2028.
    The target year is 2030. ✗

    (II) 'Kavach developed in collaboration with Germany' — NOT CORRECT.
    Kavach (meaning 'armour' in Hindi) is a proudly indigenous (Made in India) Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system.
    It was developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with three Indian vendors:

    • Kernex Microsystems
    • HBL Power Systems
    • Medha Servo Drives

    It has NO German collaboration. ✗

    (III) 'Kavach uses RFID tags on track' — CORRECT.
    The Kavach system does use RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) tags fitted on the track in station areas.
    These RFID tags communicate with equipment on the locomotive to provide location data and speed restrictions.
    The system also uses GPS, GSM-R communication, and electronic interlocking. ✓

    Statements I and II are not correct. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Defence
63. 63.
    Science and Technology

    Consider the following space missions:

    I. Axiom-4

    II. SpaDeX

    III. Gaganyaan

    How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) All the three

    Let's check whether each space mission supports microgravity research:

    (I) Axiom-4 — YES.

    Axiom-4 is a private astronaut mission to the International Space Station (ISS) organized by Axiom Space.

    India's involvement includes sending an Indian astronaut (Shubhanshu Shukla) aboard this mission.

    The ISS provides a microgravity environment, and Axiom missions specifically carry scientific experiments that utilize microgravity conditions. ✓

    (II) SpaDeX — YES.

    SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) is ISRO's mission to demonstrate autonomous docking capability in orbit.

    Being an orbital mission, it operates in microgravity conditions and can support/encourage microgravity research.

    The technology demonstrated is also essential for future space station operations where microgravity research will be conducted. ✓

    (III) Gaganyaan — YES.

    Gaganyaan is India's first crewed space mission, planned to send Indian astronauts to low Earth orbit.

    Crewed orbital missions are prime platforms for microgravity research — astronauts conduct experiments in biology, materials science, fluid dynamics, and medicine that are only possible in microgravity. ✓

    All three missions encourage or support microgravity research.

    Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Space
64. 64.
    Science and Technology

    With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:

    	Aircraft type	Description
    I.	Dornier-228	Maritime patrol aircraft
    II.	IL-76	Supersonic combat aircraft
    III.	C-17 Globemaster III	Military transport aircraft

    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Let's check each aircraft-description pair:

    (I) Dornier-228 — Maritime patrol aircraft: CORRECT. The HAL/RUAG Dornier-228 is a light transport aircraft extensively used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime surveillance and patrol missions. It is equipped with radar and surveillance systems for monitoring India's coastline and exclusive economic zone. ✓

    (II) IL-76 — Supersonic combat aircraft: INCORRECT. The Ilyushin IL-76 (known as 'Gajraj' in the Indian Air Force) is a heavy strategic transport aircraft, NOT a supersonic combat aircraft. It is used for transporting troops, heavy equipment, and cargo. It is a large four-engine aircraft with a rear loading ramp — nothing like a supersonic fighter jet. ✗

    (III) C-17 Globemaster III — Military transport aircraft: CORRECT. The Boeing C-17 Globemaster III is a large military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force. It can carry heavy equipment, vehicles, and large numbers of troops over intercontinental distances. India operates about 11 C-17s, which have been used for humanitarian missions and strategic airlift. ✓

    Two pairs (I and III) are correctly matched. Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Defence
65. 65.
    Environment

    Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

    1. Asilver iodide and potassium iodide
    2. Bsilver nitrate and potassium iodide
    3. Csilver iodide and potassium nitrate
    4. Dsilver nitrate and potassium chloride

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) silver iodide and potassium iodide

    Cloud seeding is the process of artificially inducing rainfall by introducing certain chemicals into clouds to serve as condensation nuclei (tiny particles around which water droplets form).

    The standard chemicals used for cloud seeding are:

    • Silver iodide (AgI) — The most commonly used cloud-seeding agent. Its crystal structure closely resembles that of ice, which makes it an excellent ice nucleating agent. When dispersed into clouds, silver iodide particles cause supercooled water droplets to freeze and grow into precipitation.

    • Potassium iodide (KI) — Often used alongside silver iodide to enhance the seeding effect.

    Other options are incorrect:

    • Silver nitrate (AgNO₃) — A different silver compound, not the standard cloud-seeding agent.

    • Potassium nitrate (KNO₃) — Used as fertilizer and in gunpowder, not for cloud seeding.

    • Potassium chloride (KCl) — Used as fertilizer and salt substitute, not typically for cloud seeding.

    India has conducted cloud seeding experiments, including Project Varshadhare in Karnataka, using silver iodide. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Pollution
66. 66.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

    I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

    II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) I only

    (I) 'President's pardoning power can be subjected to limited judicial review' — CORRECT.

    The Supreme Court has held in several cases (including Maru Ram v. Union of India, 1980 and Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of AP, 2006) that the President's clemency power under Article 72 is NOT absolute and can be judicially reviewed, though the scope of review is limited.

    Courts can intervene if the decision is:

    • arbitrary or mala fide
    • taken without applying mind
    • based on irrelevant considerations
    • suffers from non-application of mind.

    Courts generally don't question the merits of the clemency decision but can check the decision-making process. ✓

    (II) 'President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government' — INCORRECT.

    Under Article 74(1) of the Constitution, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

    The pardoning power is NOT a personal/discretionary power of the President — it is exercised on the advice of the government.

    The President cannot unilaterally grant pardons against the government's recommendation. ✗

    Only Statement I is correct. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Executive
67. 67.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

    II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.

    III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) I and III only

    (I) 'Speaker doesn't vacate office on dissolution until before the first meeting of new House' — CORRECT.

    Article 94 provides that the Speaker continues in office even after the Lok Sabha is dissolved, until just before the first meeting of the newly elected House.

    This ensures continuity of the office and allows the outgoing Speaker to oversee procedural matters during the transition period. ✓

    (II) 'Constitution requires Speaker to resign from political party' — INCORRECT.

    There is no such constitutional provision.

    The Constitution does NOT require the Speaker to resign from their political party.

    In practice, Speakers are expected to be impartial, and some Speakers have voluntarily resigned from their party (like N. Sanjiva Reddy), but this is a convention, not a constitutional requirement.

    In the UK system, the Speaker does resign from their party, but India has not adopted this practice constitutionally. ✗

    (III) 'Speaker can be removed by majority of all then Members with 14 days' notice' — CORRECT.

    Under Article 94, the Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of ALL the then members of the House (effective majority, not just those present and voting).

    Importantly, at least 14 days' advance notice must be given before moving such a resolution.

    While the removal resolution is being considered, the Speaker cannot preside over the House. ✓

    Statements I and III are correct. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Legislature
68. 68.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.

    II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither I nor II

    (I) 'President decides 10th Schedule disqualification based on Council of Ministers' opinion' — INCORRECT.

    Under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law), the power to decide on disqualification rests with the presiding officer — the Speaker of the Lok Sabha for its members, and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha for its members.

    The President has NO role in deciding anti-defection cases.

    The Supreme Court, in Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), upheld the Speaker's authority while making the Speaker's decision subject to judicial review. ✗

    (II) 'No mention of political party in the Constitution' — INCORRECT.

    The Constitution of India does mention 'political party.'

    The term appears explicitly in the Tenth Schedule (added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985), which deals with defection.

    Paragraph 2 of the Tenth Schedule specifically uses the term 'political party' when describing grounds for disqualification.

    Article 102(2) and Article 191(2) also reference the Tenth Schedule. ✗

    Both statements are incorrect. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Legislature
69. 69.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

    Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
    4. DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

    Statement I: 'State Governments have no power to make rules for minor mineral concessions' — INCORRECT.

    Under Section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, State Governments DO have the power to make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases, and other concessions for minor minerals.

    In fact, minor minerals are primarily under state jurisdiction.

    States set royalty rates, grant/refuse mining permits, and regulate extraction of minor minerals like sand, gravel, building stones, etc.

    Statement II: 'Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals' — CORRECT.

    Under Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, the Central Government has the authority to declare/notify which minerals are classified as 'minor minerals' (as opposed to major minerals).

    Once a mineral is notified as a minor mineral by the Centre, its regulation falls primarily to the state governments.

    The distinction between major and minor minerals is made by the Central Government through notification.

    Statement I is not correct, Statement II is correct. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Federalism & Local Self Government
70. 70.
    Environment

    Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

    1. AThe European Union
    2. BThe World Bank
    3. CThe Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
    4. DThe Food and Agriculture Organization

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) The European Union

    The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was enacted by the European Union (EU).

    It was adopted in June 2024 after prolonged negotiations and became the first comprehensive, continent-wide law specifically aimed at restoring degraded ecosystems.

    Key features of the NRL:

    • It requires EU member states to put in place restoration measures covering at least 20% of the EU's land and sea areas by 2030, and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050.
    • It covers terrestrial, freshwater, marine, and urban ecosystems including forests, wetlands, rivers, grasslands, and agricultural lands.

    The World Bank (option b) and OECD (option c) are international organizations, not legislative bodies — they cannot 'enact' laws.

    The FAO (option d) provides guidance and technical assistance but also cannot enact binding legislation.

    Only the EU, as a supranational body with legislative powers, could enact such a law binding on its member states.

    Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
71. 71.
    Indian Economy

    Suppose the revenue expenditure is Rs.80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are Rs.60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of Rs.10,000 crores and interest payments of Rs.6,000 crores.

    Which of the following statements are correct?

    I. Revenue deficit is Rs.20,000 crores.

    II. Fiscal deficit is Rs.10,000 crores.

    III. Primary deficit is Rs.4,000 crores.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) I, II and III

    This is a straightforward calculation question:

    Given:

    Revenue Expenditure = ₹80,000 crore,
    Revenue Receipts = ₹60,000 crore,
    Borrowings = ₹10,000 crore,
    Interest Payments = ₹6,000 crore.

    (I) Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts
    = 80,000 - 60,000 = ₹20,000 crore ✓

    (II) Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - Total Receipts excluding borrowings
    = Borrowings (since fiscal deficit represents the borrowing requirement of the government).
    Here, borrowings = ₹10,000 crore, so Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crore ✓

    (III) Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments
    = 10,000 - 6,000 = ₹4,000 crore ✓

    Remember these formulas:

    • Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts
    • Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - Total Receipts (excluding borrowings) = Net Borrowings
    • Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments (shows deficit excluding inherited debt obligations)

    All three calculations are correct. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
72. 72.
    Geography

    India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

    1. AIndia to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
    2. BIndia to Central Asia via China
    3. CIndia to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
    4. DIndia to Europe through Azerbaijan

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

    The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a 7,200 km multi-modal transportation network connecting India to Russia and Northern Europe through Iran and Central Asia.

    The route:
    India (Mumbai port) → Arabian Sea → Iran (Bandar Abbas/Chabahar port) → Iran (road/rail through Iranian territory) → Azerbaijan/Caspian Sea → Russia → Northern Europe.

    Key facts:

    • Founded in 2000 by India, Iran, and Russia through an intergovernmental agreement.
    • It combines ship, rail, and road transport modes.
    • It reduces transit time from India to Russia by about 40% compared to the traditional route through the Suez Canal.
    • Chabahar Port (developed with Indian investment) is a crucial link in this corridor.

    The other options are wrong:

    • Option (b) mentions China, which is not part of INSTC.
    • Option (c) describes the India-Myanmar-Thailand trilateral highway/Kaladan corridor.
    • Option (d) is partially right about Azerbaijan but wrong about the overall destination and route description.

    Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Economic Geography
73. 73.
    Environment

    Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

    Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. ABoth correct, II explains I
    2. BBoth correct, II does not explain I
    3. CI correct, II not correct
    4. DI not correct, II correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) I not correct, II correct

    Statement I: 'Brazil produces more ethanol than the USA' — INCORRECT.

    The United States is the world's LARGEST ethanol producer, followed by Brazil.

    The US produces roughly 55-60% of global ethanol, while Brazil produces about 25-30%.

    So Brazil does NOT produce more ethanol than the US. ✗

    Statement II: 'US uses corn, Brazil uses sugarcane for ethanol' — CORRECT.

    This is a key difference in global ethanol production.

    The US primarily uses corn (maize) as feedstock — corn is fermented to produce ethanol, which is blended with gasoline (E10, E15, E85 blends).

    Brazil primarily uses sugarcane — the sugar is extracted and fermented, and sugarcane ethanol is used extensively in Brazilian vehicles (many run on 100% ethanol or flex-fuel).

    Interestingly, sugarcane-based ethanol is more energy-efficient (produces about 8 units of energy for every 1 unit used in production) compared to corn-based ethanol (about 1.6 units output per 1 unit input). ✓

    Statement I is not correct, Statement II is correct. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
74. 74.
    Environment

    The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C.

    Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

    I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.

    II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    The wet-bulb temperature is a measure that combines heat AND humidity.

    At a wet-bulb temperature of 35°C, the human body can no longer cool itself through sweat evaporation because the air is too saturated with moisture — this makes it potentially lethal for humans and animals.

    (I) 'Peninsular India will suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts' — CORRECT.

    The same warming patterns that cause extreme wet-bulb temperatures are associated with broader climate disruptions in peninsular India:

    • intensified monsoons leading to flooding,
    • warmer sea surface temperatures fueling more powerful cyclones,
    • and irregular rainfall patterns causing droughts in some regions.

    These are all documented implications of the warming trend that the World Bank report highlights. ✓

    (II) 'Survival of animals including humans affected as perspiration becomes difficult' — CORRECT.

    This is the core danger of wet-bulb temperatures exceeding 35°C.

    At this threshold, even a healthy person resting in shade with unlimited water will die within hours because sweat cannot evaporate effectively when humidity is too high.

    The body continues to produce heat through metabolism but cannot shed it, leading to hyperthermia and organ failure.

    This affects all mammals and many other animals that rely on evaporative cooling. ✓

    Both statements correctly reflect the implications. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Climate Change
75. 75.
    Indian Economy

    A country's fiscal deficit stands at Rs.50,000 crores. It is receiving Rs.10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are Rs.1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

    1. ARs.48,500 crores
    2. BRs.51,500 crores
    3. CRs.58,500 crores
    4. DNone of the above

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Rs.48,500 crores

    Simple calculation:

    Given:
    Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crore,
    Non-debt creating capital receipts = ₹10,000 crore (this is irrelevant for primary deficit calculation),
    Interest Liabilities = ₹1,500 crore.

    Formula:
    Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments

    Primary Deficit = 50,000 - 1,500 = ₹48,500 crore

    Note:
    The non-debt creating capital receipts (₹10,000 crore) is a distractor — it is already factored into the fiscal deficit figure and is not needed separately for calculating primary deficit.

    The primary deficit tells us how much the government is borrowing to finance expenditure OTHER THAN interest payments. If primary deficit is zero, it means the government is borrowing only to pay interest on existing debt (not for any new spending).

    Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
76. 76.
    Indian Economy

    Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

    I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.

    II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.

    III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.

    IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. AI, II and III
    2. BI, II and IV
    3. CI, III and IV
    4. DII, III and IV

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) I, III and IV

    Let's verify each statement about the 15th Finance Commission (chaired by NK Singh, for the period 2021-26):

    (I) 'Recommended ₹4,800 crore grants for educational outcomes' — CORRECT.

    The Commission recommended performance-based grants linked to improvement in educational outcomes, including school enrollment, retention, and learning outcomes. ✓

    (II) '45% of Union taxes shared with States' — INCORRECT.

    The 15th FC recommended 41% as the States' share of the divisible pool of central taxes (vertical devolution), NOT 45%.

    This was a slight reduction from the 42% recommended by the 14th FC, partly because the erstwhile state of J&K became two Union Territories. ✗

    (III) '₹45,000 crore for agricultural reforms' — CORRECT.

    The Commission recommended keeping ₹45,000 crore as performance-based incentives for states carrying out agricultural reforms, including those related to land leasing, marketing reforms, and adoption of sustainable practices. ✓

    (IV) 'Reintroduced tax effort criteria' — CORRECT.

    The 15th FC reintroduced 'tax effort' as one of the criteria for horizontal devolution (distribution among states).

    This rewards states that make greater efforts to collect their own taxes, encouraging fiscal discipline and self-reliance. ✓

    Statements I, III, and IV are correct. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
77. 77.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

    I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.

    II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.

    III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) I and III only

    (I) 'IBRD provides loans and guarantees to middle-income countries' — CORRECT.

    The IBRD is the original institution of the World Bank Group, and it primarily provides financial assistance (loans, guarantees, risk management products) to middle-income and creditworthy lower-income countries.

    It borrows money from international capital markets and lends to these countries at near-market rates. ✓

    (II) 'IBRD works single-handedly to reduce poverty' — INCORRECT.

    IBRD does NOT work alone in poverty reduction.

    It is one of five institutions in the World Bank Group (along with IDA, IFC, MIGA, and ICSID).

    The IDA specifically focuses on the poorest countries with grants and zero/low-interest loans.

    Additionally, many other international organizations (UN agencies, regional development banks, bilateral aid agencies) also work on poverty reduction.

    The word 'single-handedly' makes this statement false. ✗

    (III) 'Established to help Europe rebuild after World War II' — CORRECT.

    The IBRD was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference along with the IMF.

    Its original mandate was to help finance the reconstruction of European countries devastated by World War II.

    After European reconstruction was largely complete, its focus shifted to developing countries.

    Its first loan was to France in 1947 for post-war reconstruction. ✓

    Statements I and III are correct. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
78. 78.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

    I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.

    II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.

    III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BI and II
    3. CI and III
    4. DIII only

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) I only

    (I) 'RTGS settlement is instantaneous, NEFT takes time' — CORRECT.

    RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) settles transactions individually and in real-time (within seconds).

    NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) processes transactions in batches at half-hourly intervals throughout the day — so there can be a delay of up to 30 minutes (or longer on holidays).

    This is the fundamental difference between the two systems. ✓

    (II) 'RTGS charges for inward transactions' — INCORRECT.

    RBI has mandated that banks shall NOT levy any charges on RTGS inward transactions.

    Inward RTGS transactions are FREE for the beneficiary.

    Banks may charge for outward RTGS transactions, but inward ones are free. ✗

    (III) 'RTGS hours are restricted on certain days' — INCORRECT.

    Since December 2020, RTGS operates 24x7x365 — meaning it is available round the clock, 365 days a year, including Sundays and bank holidays.

    NEFT also operates 24x7 since December 2019.

    So neither system has restricted hours anymore. ✗

    Only Statement I is correct. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
79. 79.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following countries:

    I. United Arab Emirates

    II. France

    III. Germany

    IV. Singapore

    V. Bangladesh

    How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

    1. AOnly two
    2. BOnly three
    3. COnly four
    4. DAll the five

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Only three

    UPI (Unified Payments Interface) has been expanding internationally.

    Let's check each country:

    (I) United Arab Emirates — YES.

    UPI merchant payments are accepted in the UAE.

    India and UAE signed agreements for UPI acceptance, and Indian travelers can make payments at UAE merchants using UPI apps. ✓

    (II) France — YES.

    UPI has been enabled for merchant payments in France through partnerships with Eiffel Tower payment systems and other merchants.

    Indian tourists can use UPI at select merchants in France. ✓

    (III) Germany — NO.

    As of the reference period, UPI merchant payments were not yet accepted in Germany. ✗

    (IV) Singapore — YES.

    Singapore was one of the early international destinations for UPI.

    India's UPI and Singapore's PayNow were linked in February 2023, enabling cross-border payments. ✓

    (V) Bangladesh — NO.

    While there have been discussions about linking payment systems, UPI merchant payments were not accepted in Bangladesh during the reference period. ✗

    Three countries (UAE, France, Singapore) accept UPI merchant payments.

    Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
80. 80.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana':

    I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.

    II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.

    III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BI and III only
    3. CII and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) I, II and III

    (I) 'Targets 1 crore solar rooftop panels in residential sector' — CORRECT.

    PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana was launched on February 15, 2024, with the ambitious target of installing rooftop solar panels on 1 crore (10 million) households.

    The scheme provides subsidies for residential rooftop solar installations, aiming to provide free electricity of up to 300 units per month to households. ✓

    (II) 'Training on solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels' — CORRECT.

    The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has included a training component to build capacity at grassroot levels.

    This includes training local technicians, electricians, and community members on how to install, operate, maintain, and repair rooftop solar systems.

    This ensures sustainable long-term operation of the installations. ✓

    (III) 'Aims to create 3 lakh+ skilled manpower' — CORRECT.

    The scheme includes a capacity building component that aims to create more than 3 lakh (300,000) skilled workers through fresh skilling and up-skilling programs.

    These workers would handle installation, maintenance, and repair of solar rooftop systems across the country. ✓

    All three statements correctly describe the scheme's components. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Federalism & Local Self Government
81. 81.
    Indian Polity

    With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

    I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.

    II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.

    III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) I and III only

    Let's evaluate each statement about ordinances:

    (I) 'Ordinance can amend any Central Act' — CORRECT.

    An ordinance promulgated under Article 123 has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.

    Therefore, it can modify or amend any existing Central Act.

    The Supreme Court has affirmed this in multiple cases. ✓

    (II) 'Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right' — INCORRECT.

    An ordinance, like any other law, is subject to the Fundamental Rights guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution.

    Article 13(2) states that the State shall not make any law that takes away or abridges Fundamental Rights — and 'law' here includes ordinances.

    So an ordinance CANNOT abridge Fundamental Rights.

    If it does, it can be struck down by courts as unconstitutional. ✗

    (III) 'Ordinance can come into effect from a back date' — CORRECT.

    An ordinance can have retrospective (back-dated) effect, just like an Act of Parliament can.

    The government can specify that the ordinance applies from a date prior to its promulgation, within constitutional limits.

    This has been done in practice, especially for tax-related ordinances. ✓

    Statements I and III are correct. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Legislature
82. 82.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following pairs:

    	State	Description
    I.	Arunachal Pradesh	The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
    II.	Nagaland	The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
    III.	Tripura	Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Let's check each pair:

    (I) Arunachal Pradesh — 'Capital named after a fort, two National Parks': CORRECT.

    Arunachal Pradesh's capital is Itanagar, named after the historic Ita Fort (a 14th-15th century brick fort — 'ita' means brick in Ahom language).

    The state has two national parks:

    • Namdapha National Park (one of India's largest, known for its biodiversity including tigers, snow leopards, and hoolock gibbons)
    • Mouling National Park. ✓

    (II) Nagaland — 'Came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act': INCORRECT.

    Nagaland was created as a separate state by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, which was a regular Act of Parliament, NOT a Constitutional Amendment Act.

    Article 371A was later inserted through the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act to provide special protections for Naga customary law and practices, but the state itself was created through an ordinary Act. ✗

    (III) Tripura — 'Part C State to centrally administered territory to full State': CORRECT.

    After independence, Tripura was a Part C state (Chief Commissioner's province).

    With the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, it became a Union Territory (centrally administered).

    Finally, through the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971, Tripura achieved full statehood on January 21, 1972. ✓

    Two pairs (I and III) are correctly matched. Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Introduction to Constitution
83. 83.
    Indian Polity

    With reference to India, consider the following:

    I. The Inter-State Council

    II. The National Security Council

    III. Zonal Councils

    How many of the above are established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Only one

    (I) Inter-State Council — CONSTITUTIONAL.

    The Inter-State Council is established under Article 263 of the Constitution, which empowers the President to establish such a council if it appears that the public interest would be served.

    It was established in 1990 on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission.

    ✓ Constitutional body.

    (II) National Security Council — NOT CONSTITUTIONAL.

    The NSC was created by an executive order in 1998 under the Vajpayee government.

    It is headed by the Prime Minister and includes the Defence Minister, Finance Minister, External Affairs Minister, Home Minister, and the National Security Advisor.

    It has no constitutional basis.

    ✗ Executive body.

    (III) Zonal Councils — NOT CONSTITUTIONAL.

    Zonal Councils were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 — a statutory (parliamentary) law, not the Constitution.

    There are five zonal councils (North, South, East, West, Central), each chaired by the Union Home Minister, with Chief Ministers of member states as members.

    ✗ Statutory body.

    Only one (Inter-State Council) is established per Constitutional provisions.

    Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Federalism & Local Self Government
84. 84.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

    II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) I only

    (I) 'Constitution explicitly mentions Governor acts in own discretion in certain spheres' — CORRECT.

    Article 163(1) states that there shall be a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor EXCEPT in so far as the Governor is by or under the Constitution required to exercise functions in his discretion.

    Several provisions require the Governor to act in discretion:

    • reserving bills for Presidential consideration (Article 200),
    • appointing CM when no party has a clear majority,
    • reporting to the President about failure of constitutional machinery in a state (Article 356),
    • and special responsibilities under Article 371 for certain states. ✓

    (II) 'President can directly reserve a State bill without Governor forwarding it' — INCORRECT.

    Under the constitutional scheme, a bill passed by a State Legislature goes first to the Governor.

    The Governor can give assent, withhold assent, or reserve the bill for Presidential consideration (Article 200).

    There is NO provision for the President to directly pull up or reserve a State bill on their own — the bill MUST be forwarded by the Governor first.

    The President's role comes into play only AFTER the Governor reserves the bill. ✗

    Only Statement I is correct. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Executive
85. 85.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following pairs:

    	Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
    I.	Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of State Policy
    II.	Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
    III.	Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) All the three

    (I) Separation of Judiciary from Executive — Directive Principles:

    CORRECT. Article 50 of the Constitution (in Part IV — Directive Principles of State Policy) states:

    'The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.'

    This is a DPSP, not a Fundamental Right. ✓

    (II) Valuing and preserving rich heritage of composite culture — Fundamental Duties:

    CORRECT. Article 51A(f) (in Part IV-A — Fundamental Duties, added by the 42nd Amendment) states that it shall be the duty of every citizen

    'to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.'

    ✓

    (III) Prohibition of child employment below 14 in factories — Fundamental Rights:

    CORRECT. Article 24 (in Part III — Fundamental Rights) states:

    'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.'

    This is a Fundamental Right. ✓

    All three pairs are correctly matched.

    Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
86. 86.
    Indian Polity

    With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:

    I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.

    II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither I nor II

    (I) 'State Government loses executive power and local body assumes total administration' — INCORRECT.

    Declaring an area as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule does NOT strip the State Government of its executive power.

    The State Government continues to function normally.

    However, the Governor gets special powers under the Fifth Schedule, including the authority to:

    • direct that particular Acts of Parliament or State Legislature shall not apply to Scheduled Areas,
    • make regulations for peace and good government,
    • and modify existing laws in their application to these areas.

    Tribes Advisory Councils are constituted, but they ADVISE the Governor — they don't take over 'total administration.' ✗

    (II) 'Union Government can take over total administration on Governor's recommendations' — INCORRECT.

    The Fifth Schedule does NOT contain any provision for the Union Government to take over the total administration of Scheduled Areas.

    The Governor has special regulatory powers, and the President can direct that a particular area be declared/cease to be a Scheduled Area, but there is no mechanism for Union takeover of administration as described.

    Article 356 (President's Rule) is a separate provision and is not part of the Fifth Schedule framework. ✗

    Both statements are incorrect. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Introduction to Constitution
87. 87.
    Indian Polity

    With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

    	Organization	Union Ministry
    I.	The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
    II.	The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy Industries
    III.	The National Centre for Trade Information	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) None

    This question tests knowledge of which boards/organizations fall under which ministry:

    (I) National Automotive Board — Ministry of Commerce and Industry: INCORRECT. The National Automotive Board is actually under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce and Industry. The Ministry of Heavy Industries oversees the automotive sector, EV policy, and related manufacturing. ✗

    (II) Coir Board — Ministry of Heavy Industries: INCORRECT. The Coir Board is actually under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not Heavy Industries. Coir (coconut fiber) products are largely produced by small-scale and cottage industries, hence the MSME connection. ✗

    (III) National Centre for Trade Information — Ministry of MSME: INCORRECT. The National Centre for Trade Information is actually under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not MSME. Trade information and trade facilitation fall under Commerce. ✗

    Interestingly, the question has cleverly rotated the correct ministries — each organization is paired with another organization's correct ministry! None of the pairs are correctly matched. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
88. 88.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

    I. List I — Union List, in the Seventh Schedule

    II. Extent of the executive power of a State

    III. Conditions of the Governor's office

    For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) I and II only

    Under Article 368 of the Constitution, certain types of constitutional amendments require ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States (in addition to the special majority in Parliament).

    These typically involve matters that affect the federal structure.

    (I) List I (Union List) in the Seventh Schedule — YES, requires state ratification.

    Changing the Union List affects the distribution of legislative powers between Centre and States, which is fundamental to federalism. ✓

    (II) Extent of executive power of a State — YES, requires state ratification.

    The executive power of a State (Article 162) is co-extensive with its legislative power.

    Any amendment affecting this directly impacts state autonomy. ✓

    (III) Conditions of Governor's office — NO, does NOT require state ratification.

    The Governor's office conditions (Articles 153-156 — appointment, term, qualifications, etc.) can be amended by the special majority in Parliament alone.

    The Governor is a Central appointee, and changing their office conditions doesn't alter the fundamental federal balance in the way that changing legislative lists or state executive power does. ✗

    I and II require state ratification. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Constitutional Amendments
89. 89.
    Indian Polity

    With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

    I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

    II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.

    III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. AI and II only
    2. BII and III only
    3. CI and III only
    4. DI, II and III

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) I, II and III

    (I) 'Governor not answerable to any court for exercise of official powers' — CORRECT.

    Article 361(1) explicitly states:

    'The Governor of a State shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.'

    This provides complete immunity from court proceedings for official acts. ✓

    (II) 'No criminal proceedings against Governor during term' — CORRECT.

    Article 361(2) states:

    'No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.'

    Additionally, Article 361(3) provides that no civil suit for personal acts can be instituted during tenure without two months' prior notice. ✓

    (III) 'State Legislature members not liable for anything said within the House' — CORRECT.

    Article 194(2) provides:

    'No member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee thereof.'

    This is parliamentary privilege — it ensures legislators can speak freely in the House without fear of legal consequences. ✓

    All three statements are correct. Answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Legislature
90. 90.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following activities:

    I. Production of crude oil

    II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum

    III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products

    IV. Production of natural gas

    How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. COnly three
    4. DAll the four

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Only two

    The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under the PNGRB Act, 2006 to regulate the DOWNSTREAM sector of the petroleum and natural gas industry.

    (I) Production of crude oil — NOT regulated by PNGRB.

    Crude oil production is an UPSTREAM activity.

    Upstream activities (exploration and production) are governed by the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH) and the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas directly, under policies like NELP and OALP. ✗

    (II) Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum — YES, regulated by PNGRB.

    These are downstream activities.

    PNGRB regulates petroleum product pipelines, city gas distribution networks, and LNG terminals. ✓

    (III) Marketing and sale of petroleum products — YES, regulated by PNGRB.

    Marketing and retail sale of petroleum products fall under downstream regulation.

    PNGRB authorizes entities for marketing of notified petroleum products. ✓

    (IV) Production of natural gas — NOT regulated by PNGRB.

    Like crude oil production, natural gas production is an upstream activity not under PNGRB's jurisdiction. ✗

    Two activities (II and III — both downstream) are regulated by PNGRB.

    Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
91. 91.
    Modern Indian History

    "Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

    1. Athe Champaran Satyagraha
    2. Bpublicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
    3. Cattending the Second Round Table Conference in London
    4. Dthe launch of the Quit India Movement

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

    The statement 'Sedition has become my religion' was made by Mahatma Gandhi during the Civil Disobedience Movement, specifically at the time of publicly violating the Salt Law at Dandi in 1930.

    Context: After the Lahore Congress (December 1929) declared Purna Swaraj (complete independence) as the goal, Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement with the famous Dandi March (March 12 - April 6, 1930).

    By deliberately breaking the Salt Law (which gave the British a monopoly over salt production and taxation), Gandhi was committing an act of civil disobedience — which the British government classified as sedition.

    Gandhi's statement was a powerful declaration that defying unjust laws had become a moral duty for him.

    It framed resistance to British rule not as criminality but as a matter of conscience and faith.

    This did NOT happen during:

    • Champaran (1917, which was about indigo farmers)
    • The Second Round Table Conference (1931, London)
    • The Quit India Movement (1942, which had the slogan 'Do or Die').

    Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Gandhian Phase II (1929-1939)
92. 92.
    Art and Culture

    The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

    1. Acarnelian
    2. Bclay
    3. Cbronze
    4. Dgold

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) bronze

    The 'Dancing Girl' is one of the most iconic artifacts discovered from the Indus Valley Civilization, found at Mohenjo-daro (in present-day Sindh, Pakistan).

    Key facts:

    • Material: It is made of BRONZE, created using the 'lost-wax' (cire perdue) casting technique. This technique involves making a wax model, covering it with clay, heating it to melt the wax out, and then pouring molten bronze into the hollow clay mold.

    • Age: Approximately 4,500 years old (c. 2500 BCE)

    • Description: A small statue (about 10.5 cm tall) depicting a young woman in a confident, naturalistic pose with one hand on her hip. She wears bangles on one arm and a necklace.

    • Significance: It demonstrates the advanced metallurgical skills of the Harappan civilization and their artistic sophistication. The naturalistic pose is remarkable for its age.

    It is NOT made of carnelian (a semi-precious stone used for beads), clay (terracotta figurines were separate artifacts), or gold (though gold jewelry has been found at Harappan sites). Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Indian Sculpture, Pottery and Paintings
93. 93.
    Modern Indian History

    Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

    1. AC. R. Das
    2. BMadan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
    3. CDr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
    4. DM. A. Jinnah

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

    After the Chauri Chaura incident (February 4, 1922) — where a mob of Non-Cooperation protesters set fire to a police station killing 22 policemen — the British government arrested and tried hundreds of participants. Many were sentenced to death.

    Madan Mohan Malaviya, along with Krishna Kant, provided legal defence to the accused. Malaviya was a prominent lawyer, freedom fighter, and educationist (founder of Banaras Hindu University). His legal intervention was crucial — the original trial court had sentenced 172 accused, with many receiving death sentences. Through his legal efforts, a significant number of death sentences were commuted or reduced on appeal.

    This is important because Gandhi had already called off the entire Non-Cooperation Movement after Chauri Chaura, citing the violation of non-violence. While Gandhi withdrew from the political arena in dismay, Malaviya stepped in to ensure the arrested protesters received legal representation.

    C.R. Das (option a) was known for his role in the Alipore Bomb Case defence. M.A. Jinnah (option d) was a lawyer but not associated with this case. Answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929)
94. 94.
    Modern Indian History

    Subsequent to which one of the following events,

    Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres,

    decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?

    1. AThe Poona Pact
    2. BThe Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
    3. CArrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement.
    4. DPromulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) The Poona Pact

    The Poona Pact (September 24, 1932) was the event after which Gandhi formally incorporated the upliftment of 'Harijans' (untouchables/Dalits) into his political and social programme.

    Background: In 1932, the British announced the Communal Award, which gave separate electorates to Depressed Classes (untouchables), as Dr. B.R. Ambedkar had demanded.

    Gandhi opposed separate electorates (fearing it would permanently divide Hindu society) and went on a fast unto death in Yerwada Jail in September 1932. This led to negotiations between Gandhi and Ambedkar, resulting in the Poona Pact — which replaced separate electorates with reserved seats within the general electorate.

    After this episode, Gandhi realized that merely opposing untouchability in speeches was not enough.

    He launched a dedicated movement, started the 'Harijan' newspaper (1933), founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League (later renamed Harijan Sevak Sangh), and undertook extensive tours of the country to fight untouchability.

    The upliftment of Harijans became a central, organized part of his social and political agenda.

    The other options are from different periods and contexts. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Gandhian Phase II (1929-1939)
95. 95.
    Modern Indian History

    Consider the following fruits:

    I. Papaya

    II. Pineapple

    III. Guava

    How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) All the three

    All three fruits were introduced to India by the Portuguese during the 16th and 17th centuries:

    (I) Papaya — Introduced by the Portuguese from Central America/Mexico.

    Papaya is native to the tropical Americas and was brought to India through Portuguese trading routes via the Philippines and Malacca. ✓

    (II) Pineapple — Introduced by the Portuguese from South America (Brazil).

    The Portuguese brought pineapple to India around the early 16th century.

    The word for pineapple in many Indian languages (like 'ananas') comes from the Tupi language of Brazil via Portuguese. ✓

    (III) Guava — Introduced by the Portuguese from tropical America.

    Guava is native to Mexico, Central America, and northern South America.

    The Portuguese brought it to India, and it became so well-adapted that many people incorrectly assume it's native to India. ✓

    Other crops introduced by the Portuguese to India include:

    • chilli peppers
    • tomatoes
    • potatoes
    • tobacco
    • cashew nuts
    • maize.

    The Portuguese colonial presence in Goa and their extensive trading networks across the Indian Ocean made them important vectors for the 'Columbian Exchange' — the transfer of plants, animals, and diseases between the Old and New Worlds.

    All three were Portuguese introductions. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Advent of Europeans in India (1498-1763)
96. 96.
    Geography

    Consider the following countries:

    I. United Kingdom

    II. Denmark

    III. New Zealand

    IV. Australia

    V. Brazil

    How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

    1. AAll the five
    2. BOnly four
    3. COnly three
    4. DOnly two

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Only four

    Correct Answer: B (Only four)

    (Note: The question asks how many of the listed countries have more than four time zones, counting both mainland areas and overseas dependencies.)

    ---

    Countries with MORE than 4 Time Zones (Counted)

    • I. United Kingdom (9 Time Zones): While the mainland UK uses just 1 time zone (GMT/BST), its scattered overseas territories and islands across the globe (like Bermuda, the Cayman Islands, Gibraltar, and the Pitcairn Islands) push its total count to 9.
    • II. Denmark (5 Time Zones): Mainland Denmark sits in a single European time zone. However, including its massive self-governing territories of Greenland (which spans multiple zones) and the Faroe Islands brings its total to 5.
    • III. New Zealand (5 Time Zones): Its mainland territory covers 2 standard zones. When you add its associated Pacific island territories and dependencies—such as the Cook Islands, Niue, and Tokelau—the total comes to 5.
    • IV. Australia (9 Time Zones): Australia's massive east-west mainland spans 3 standard zones. Adding its external island territories (like Christmas Island, Cocos Islands, and Norfolk Island) increases its total operating count to 9.

    Countries with 4 or Fewer Time Zones (Not Counted)

    • V. Brazil (4 Time Zones): Despite its massive geographical landmass stretching across South America, Brazil spans exactly 4 time zones (ranging from its Atlantic islands at UTC-02:00 to the far western state of Acre at UTC-05:00). Since it has exactly four, it does not fit the criteria of having more than four.

    ---

    Quick Time Zone Counter

    Country	Total Time Zones	More than 4?	Key Reason
    United Kingdom	9	Yes	Global overseas island territories.
    Australia	9	Yes	Huge mainland width + external islands.
    Denmark	5	Yes	Inclusion of Greenland and Faroe Islands.
    New Zealand	5	Yes	Inclusion of Pacific island dependencies.
    Brazil	4	No	Strictly capped at 4 across its landmass.

    Key learnings →World Physical Geography
97. 97.
    Geography

    Consider the following statements:

    I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.

    II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. AI only
    2. BII only
    3. CBoth I and II
    4. DNeither I nor II

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) I only

    (I) 'Anadyr and Nome experience different days at breakfast time' — CORRECT.

    Anadyr (in Chukotka, Russia) and Nome (in Alaska, USA) are geographically close — separated by only about 600 km across the Bering Strait.

    However, the International Date Line (IDL) runs between them.

    This means that when it's breakfast time (say 8 AM) on a Monday in Anadyr, it would be breakfast time on SUNDAY in Nome — a completely different calendar day, even though the physical distance is small and both are having breakfast simultaneously. ✓

    (II) 'When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome' — INCORRECT.

    This gets the direction wrong.

    Anadyr is WEST of the IDL (on the Asian side, which is always a day AHEAD).

    Nome is EAST of the IDL (on the American side, which is a day BEHIND).

    So if it's Monday in Anadyr, it's SUNDAY in Nome — not Tuesday.

    Think of it this way: when you cross the IDL going from west to east (Asia to Americas), you go BACK one day. ✗

    Only Statement I is correct. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →World Physical Geography
98. 98.
    Modern Indian History

    Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

    1. A'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
    2. BDr. B. R. Ambedkar
    3. CBhaskarrao Jadhav
    4. DDinkarrao Javalkar

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

    The Self-Respect Movement was founded by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, popularly known as 'Periyar' (meaning 'great man' or 'elder' in Tamil), in 1925 in Tamil Nadu.

    Key features of the movement:

    • It was a radical social reform movement that challenged Brahminical hegemony, caste hierarchy, and religious superstition.
    • It promoted self-respect marriages (weddings without Brahmin priests), rationalism, and women's rights.
    • It opposed the dominance of Sanskrit and advocated for Tamil pride and Dravidian identity.
    • Periyar published the magazine 'Kudi Arasu' (Republic) to spread his ideas.
    • The movement later evolved into the Dravidar Kazhagam (DK) and eventually influenced the formation of the DMK and AIADMK political parties.

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (option b) led the Dalit movement and fought for the rights of untouchables but did not found the Self-Respect Movement. Bhaskarrao Jadhav and Dinkarrao Javalkar (options c, d) were social reformers from Maharashtra. Answer is (a).

    Key learnings →Socio-Religious Reform Movements
99. 99.
    Geography

    Consider the following pairs:

    	Country	Resource-rich in
    I.	Botswana	Diamond
    II.	Chile	Lithium
    III.	Indonesia	Nickel

    In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

    1. AOnly one
    2. BOnly two
    3. CAll the three
    4. DNone

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) All the three

    Let's verify each country-mineral pairing:

    (I) Botswana — Diamond: CORRECT. Botswana is one of the world's largest diamond producers by value. The Jwaneng mine in Botswana is the richest diamond mine in the world. Diamonds account for about 70-80% of Botswana's export earnings and have been central to its economic development since independence. ✓

    (II) Chile — Lithium: CORRECT. Chile is part of the 'Lithium Triangle' (along with Argentina and Bolivia) in South America. Chile has the world's largest lithium reserves (in the Salar de Atacama) and is one of the top lithium producers globally. Lithium is crucial for electric vehicle batteries and renewable energy storage. ✓

    (III) Indonesia — Nickel: CORRECT. Indonesia is the world's largest producer of nickel ore and a major player in nickel processing. Indonesian nickel is vital for stainless steel production and, increasingly, for electric vehicle battery manufacturing. The country has banned raw nickel ore exports to encourage domestic processing and attract battery manufacturing investment. ✓

    All three pairings are correct. Answer is (c).

    Key learnings →Economic Geography
100. 100.
     Geography

     Consider the following pairs:

     	Region	Country
     I.	Mallorca	Italy
     II.	Normandy	Spain
     III.	Sardinia	France

     In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

     1. AOnly one
     2. BOnly two
     3. CAll the three
     4. DNone

     Show answer

     Answer: (D) None

     This question deliberately matches each European region with the WRONG country:

     (I) Mallorca — Italy: INCORRECT.

     Mallorca (also spelled Majorca) is the largest island of the Balearic Islands, belonging to SPAIN.

     It is located in the Mediterranean Sea off the eastern coast of Spain.

     It is a famous tourist destination known for its beaches, mountains, and nightlife.

     The correct country is Spain. ✗

     (II) Normandy — Spain: INCORRECT.

     Normandy is a historical region in FRANCE, located in northern France along the English Channel coast.

     It is famous for the D-Day landings of World War II (June 6, 1944), the Bayeux Tapestry, Mont-Saint-Michel, and Camembert cheese.

     The correct country is France. ✗

     (III) Sardinia — France: INCORRECT.

     Sardinia is the second-largest island in the Mediterranean and belongs to ITALY.

     It is located west of the Italian mainland.

     It is known for its stunning coastline (Costa Smeralda), archaeological sites, and distinct cultural identity.

     The correct country is Italy. ✗

     The question is designed as a trap — each region is paired with the country of another region in the list (a circular swap).

     None of the rows are correctly matched. Answer is (d).

     Key learnings →World Physical Geography

No questions for this subject.

End of paper · 100 questions